Pharmacology MCQs
Test your Drug IQ!
Click Below to learn more on pharmacology & Get ANCC Accredietd CEUs
Q- Which one of the following is the treatment of choice of a case of lymphogranuloma venereum?
A- Acyclovir
B- Ampicillin
C- Doxycycline
D- Vancomycin
The Answer is C- Doxycycline- It is the only one on the list that is effective against Chlamydia which is the causative organism of lymphogranuloma venereum.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Reflex tachycardia caused by systemic albuterol can be blocked by which of the following medications?
A- Dobutamine
B- Metoprolol
C- Phenylephrine
D- Prazosin
The Correct Answer is B- Metoprolol- Beta blocker is the only choice that blocks beta agonists such as albuterol.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
A 66-year-old man complains of difficult micturition and drippling at the end of urination. Laboratory investigations and imaging studies confirm the diagnosis of senile enlarged prostate and exclude prostate cancer. Which these drugs is the most appropriate for this patient?
A- Abiraterone
B- Finasteride
C- Flutamide
D- Pergolide
E- Tadalafil
All drugs mentioned above are used in the treatment of cancer prostate except finasteride which is a dihydrotestosterone (DHT) inhibitor which is also known as 5Ξ±-Reductase inhibitors. This enzyme is essential for the growth and development of prostate gland.
The correct answer is B
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of these drugs can lead to weight gain and constipation?
A- Bromocriptine
B- Clozapine
C- Pimozide
D- Ziprasidone
The Correct Answer is
B- Clozapine.
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is known to be associated with weight gain and constipation as potential side effects. Weight gain is a common side effect of many antipsychotic drugs, and constipation can also occur with the use of certain medications in this class.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following effects is caused by administration of mecamylamine?
A- Hypertension
B- Pupillary constriction
C- Tachycardia
D- Tremors
The Correct Answer is C- Tachycardia- This drug is a ganglion blocker usually administered during surgery to control hypotension and blood loss. It blocks parasympathetic control of the heart causing tachycardia.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of these drugs is more beneficial to treat hypertension in diabetic patients?
A- Amlodipine
B- Enalapril
C- Furosemide
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is Enalapril (option B), being an ACE inhibitor, is often considered beneficial for diabetic patients with hypertension because it can help protect the kidneys and reduce proteinuria, which is a common complication of diabetes. ACE inhibitors also have cardiovascular protective effects in diabetic patients.
Amlodipine (option A), a calcium channel blocker, can also be used in diabetic patients with hypertension and may have benefits for certain individuals. It does not have the same kidney-protective effects as ACE inhibitors but is still a viable option.
Furosemide (option C) is a diuretic primarily used for conditions involving fluid retention and is not typically a first-line choice for hypertension in diabetic patients.
Verapamil (option D) is another calcium channel blocker that may be used to treat hypertension, but it's not commonly chosen as the first-line option for hypertensive diabetic patients.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the coagulation parameter affected by warfarin?
A- Bleeding time
B- Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
C- Prothrombin time (PT)
The Correct Answer is C- Prothrombin time (PT)
Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that primarily affects the prothrombin time (PT). PT measures the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, which involves factors outside of the bloodstream. Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (factors II, VII, IX, and X), which are involved in the extrinsic pathway. As a result, PT is prolonged when someone is taking warfarin. This medication is used to prevent blood clots and is monitored by measuring PT to ensure that the blood does not become too thin, which could lead to bleeding complications.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antiarrhythmic medications may cause discoloration of the skin, photosensitivity, pulmonary and thyroid complications?
A- Amiodarone
B- Diltiazem
C- Procainamide
D- Propranolol
The Correct Answer is A- Amiodarone- It is the only one on the list that has a variety of side effects including those mentioned in the question.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Qβ Which of the following is the main reason that acetylcholine not used in clinical practice?
A- It has a long half-life
B- It is expensive
C- It is hydrolyzed very quickly
D- It is toxic
The correct answer is C
Acetylcholine has an ultrashort half-life as it is rapidly hydrolyzed.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is beneficial in treatment of glaucoma through increased outflow of aqueous fluid by causing contraction of ciliary muscle?
A- Alpha agonists
B- Beta blockers
C- Cholinomimetics
D- Diuretics
The Correct Answer is C- Cholinomimetics- Other drugs decrease the secretion of aqueous fluid and alpha agonists increase the outflow but by a different mechanism.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following cholinomimetic agents is used in the challenge test for diagnosis of asthma?
A- Bethanechol
B- Carbachol
C- Methacholine
D- Pilocarpine
The correct answer is C- Methacholine.
Methacholine is a cholinomimetic agent that is commonly used in the challenge test for the diagnosis of asthma. This test, known as the methacholine challenge test or bronchial provocation test, is used to assess airway hyperresponsiveness in individuals suspected of having asthma.
During the test, methacholine is inhaled, and if a person's airways are hyperresponsive, it will cause them to narrow. This narrowing of the airways is measured by assessing lung function before and after methacholine inhalation. The test helps in confirming the diagnosis of asthma by evaluating the degree of airway responsiveness.
Bethanechol (A), carbachol (B), and pilocarpine (D) are other cholinomimetic agents but are not typically used in the challenge test for the diagnosis of asthma. Bethanechol is mainly used for the treatment of urinary retention, carbachol is used to lower intraocular pressure in glaucoma, and pilocarpine is used for the treatment of dry mouth in conditions such as Sjogren's syndrome.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antibiotics can cause interstitial nephritis?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Oxacillin
C- Piperacillin
D- Ticarcillin
The Correct Answer is B- Oxacillin- It also can cause hypersensitivity reactions. Other drugs that can cause interstitial nephritis are nafcillin and dicloxacillin and they all are penicillinase-resistant penicillins.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following most likely benefits an asymptomatic patient with breast cancer who has a significant family history?
A- Anastrozole
B- BRCA testing
C- Dietary modification
D- Tamoxifen
The Correct Answer is D- Tamoxifen- It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator and results in 50-65% reduction of in these cases of breast cancer. BRCA testing is not a beneficial screening test. Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor which is useful in preventing metastases in a diagnosed case of breast cancer.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A college student presents to the clinic for consultation. He is worried that he might be exposed to gonorrhea last night. Which of the following is the prophylactic treatment to avoid this condition?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Ceftriaxone
C- Ciprofloxacin
D- Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is B- Ceftriaxone- It is used as a prophylaxis and treatment for gonorrhea. Ciprofloxacin can be also used by ceftriaxone is the first choice.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the best initial therapy for a case of bacterial meningitis?
A- Ampicillin and gentamicin
B- Amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin
C- Ceftriaxone and vancomycin
D- Metronidazole and tetracycline
The Correct Answer is C- Ceftriaxone and vancomycin- This is the best regimen to begin treatment of bacterial meningitis. These antibiotics most likely cover all organisms responsible for bacterial meningitis.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is considered irreversible alpha receptor antagonist?
A- Labetalol
B- Phenoxybenzamine
C- Prazosin
D- Tolazoline
The correct answer is B- Phenoxybenzamine.
Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible alpha receptor antagonist. It binds covalently to alpha receptors and blocks their activation. It is used primarily in the treatment of pheochromocytoma, a rare tumor that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines. By blocking the alpha receptors, phenoxybenzamine helps control symptoms such as hypertension (high blood pressure) associated with this condition.
Labetalol (option A) is a non-selective beta blocker with alpha-blocking activity. It blocks both beta and alpha receptors, but its alpha-blocking effects are reversible.
Prazosin (option C) and Tolazoline (option D) are reversible alpha-1 receptor antagonists. They bind to alpha-1 receptors but can dissociate from them, allowing the receptors to become active again.
Therefore, the correct answer is B- Phenoxybenzamine.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for motion sickness?
A- Benztropine
B- Dicyclomine
C- Scopolamine
D- Tolterodine
The drug of choice for motion sickness is option C: Scopolamine. Scopolamine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to prevent and treat motion sickness. It is available in various forms, including transdermal patches, which can be applied behind the ear. These patches release a continuous dose of scopolamine to help prevent symptoms of motion sickness, such as nausea and vomiting.
Benztropine (option A) is primarily used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease and drug-induced extrapyramidal symptoms.
Dicyclomine (option B) is an antispasmodic medication used to treat conditions such as irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
Tolterodine (option D) is primarily used for the treatment of overactive bladder.
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Cinchonism is a possible side effect of which one of the following drugs?
A- Enflurane
B- Isoniazid
C- Metoclopramide
D- Quinidine
The correct answer is D- Quinidine.Cinchonism is a condition characterized by a range of side effects that can occur as a result of the use of certain medications derived from the bark of cinchona trees, such as quinine and its derivative, quinidine. Quinidine is commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders, particularly atrial fibrillation and ventricular arrhythmias. However, one of the possible side effects of quinidine therapy is cinchonism.Cinchonism can manifest with symptoms such as ringing in the ears (tinnitus), headache, dizziness, blurred vision, confusion, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and in severe cases, cardiac arrhythmias. These symptoms are associated with the toxic effects of quinidine on the central nervous system and can occur at therapeutic doses.Therefore, the drug associated with the possible side effect of cinchonism is Quinidine (option D).
Do you need to Practice more MCQs? Click the link below to learn more pharmacology & Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following actions of epinephrine is blocked by prazosin?
A- Bronchial dilation
B- High stroke volume
C- Pupil dilation
D- Tachycardia
The correct answer is option C - Pupil dilation.
Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activity of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors. Epinephrine activates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors in the radial muscle of the iris, causing pupil dilation (mydriasis). When prazosin is administered, it blocks the effect of epinephrine on the alpha-1 adrenergic receptors, leading to the inhibition of pupil dilation.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a potassium channel blocker (Class III)?
A- Amiodarone
B- Carvedilol
C- Procainamide
D- Verapamil
The correct answer is A- Amiodarone. Amiodarone is a medication that belongs to the class III antiarrhythmic drugs, which are known as potassium channel blockers. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential duration and refractory period of cardiac cells, thereby helping to regulate and stabilize the heart's rhythm. Carvedilol (B) is a non-selective beta blocker with alpha-blocking properties. Procainamide (C) is a class I antiarrhythmic drug that blocks sodium channels. Verapamil (D) is a calcium channel blocker.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following types of drug interactions occurs when aspirin is given with acetaminophen?
A- Additive
B- Permissive
C- Synergistic
D- Tachyphylactic
The Correct Answer is A- Additive- This occurs when the effect of the 2 medications is equal to the sum of their individual effects.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-hypertensive medications acts mainly through lowering the peripheral resistance by direct arteriolar vasodilation?
A- Atenolol
B- Hydralazine
C- Lisinopril
D- Losartan
The Correct Answer is B- Hydralazine- It is one of the direct-acting vasodilators which also include nitroprusside, minoxidil and diazoxide.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs should be given to a patient that exhibits severe adverse reactions after administration of IV midazolam?
A- Flumazenil
B- Glucagon
C- Naloxone
D- Protamine
The Correct Answer is A- Flumazenil- It is used to treat toxicity of benzodiazepines such as midazolam. B-is used in beta blocker overdose, C in opioid toxicity and D in heparin overdose.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the mechanism of action of pioglitazone in diabetic patients?
A- Decreases insulin breakdown
B- Increases glucose excretion
C- Increases glucose uptake in muscle cells
D- Increases insulin release
The correct answer is C) Increases glucose uptake in muscle cells.
Pioglitazone is an oral medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called thiazolidinediones (TZDs) or glitazones. The primary mechanism of action of pioglitazone involves increasing the uptake of glucose in muscle cells. This is achieved by activating peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), a nuclear receptor found in various tissues, including muscle, fat, and liver.
By activating PPAR-gamma, pioglitazone enhances the insulin sensitivity of peripheral tissues, particularly muscle cells. It stimulates the expression of genes involved in glucose uptake and utilization, resulting in increased glucose uptake by muscle cells. This mechanism helps to lower blood glucose levels in diabetic patients.
It is important to note that pioglitazone does not directly affect insulin release from the pancreas or increase glucose excretion in the urine.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Interferon alpha is indicated for the treatment of which one of the following conditions?
A- Bullous pemphigoid
B- Hepatitis C virus infection
C- Kidney transplantation
D- Rheumatoid arthritis
Interferon alpha is indicated for the treatment of B- Hepatitis C virus infection.
Interferon alpha is a type of cytokine that is used in the treatment of viral infections, including Hepatitis C. It helps to boost the body's immune response against the virus and can help in reducing viral replication and controlling the infection. Interferon alpha is often used in combination with other antiviral medications for the treatment of Hepatitis C.
It is not typically used for the treatment of bullous pemphigoid, kidney transplantation, or rheumatoid arthritis. The treatment options for bullous pemphigoid usually involve topical or systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive medications, or other immune-modulating drugs. Kidney transplantation involves the use of immunosuppressive medications to prevent rejection of the transplanted kidney. Rheumatoid arthritis is typically managed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), and newer biologic medications targeting specific components of the immune system.
Therefore, the correct answer is B- Hepatitis C virus infection.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following agents most likely causes vasoconstriction?
A- Bradykinin
B- Histamine
C- Nitric oxide
D- Norepinephrine
The agent most likely to cause vasoconstriction among the options provided is D- Norepinephrine.
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter and hormone that is released by sympathetic nerve endings and the adrenal glands. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor by binding to alpha-adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle cells in blood vessels. When norepinephrine binds to these receptors, it leads to the contraction of the smooth muscle, causing vasoconstriction and narrowing of the blood vessels.
Bradykinin, on the other hand, is a peptide that causes vasodilation by promoting the release of nitric oxide and prostaglandins. Histamine is another vasodilator that is released during allergic reactions and inflammation. Nitric oxide is a powerful vasodilator that is produced by endothelial cells and helps regulate blood flow.
Therefore, among the given options, norepinephrine is the agent that is most likely to cause vasoconstriction.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications increases the threshold for angina?
A- Benazepril
B- Digoxin
C- Furosemide
D- Metoprolol
The Correct Answer is D- Metoprolol- Beta blockers are cardio-protective and they increase the threshold for angina. Other choices are valuable in treatment.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following gout treatments lowers serum uric acid?
A- Allopurinol
B- Colchicine
C- Indomethacin
D- Probenecid
The Correct Answer is A- Allopurinol- It the only one on the list that lowers uric acid by inhibition of xanthine oxidase. Others are analgesics.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following gout treatments lowers serum uric acid?
A- Allopurinol
B- Colchicine
C- Indomethacin
D- Probenecid
The correct answer is A- Allopurinol.
Allopurinol is a medication commonly used in the treatment of gout to lower serum uric acid levels. It works by inhibiting an enzyme called xanthine oxidase, which is involved in the production of uric acid. By reducing the production of uric acid, allopurinol helps prevent the formation of urate crystals that cause gouty inflammation.
Colchicine and indomethacin are medications used in the treatment of acute gout attacks. They help relieve pain and inflammation associated with gout but do not directly lower serum uric acid levels.
Probenecid, on the other hand, is a medication used to increase the excretion of uric acid from the body. It works by blocking the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidneys, thereby promoting its elimination in the urine. Probenecid is used in the treatment of chronic gout and can be beneficial for individuals who under-excrete uric acid.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Administration of spironolactone and furosemide leads to which of the following?
A- Increase potassium loss
B- Reduce magnesium loss
C- Reduce potassium loss
D- Reduce sodium loss
The Correct Answer is C- Reduce potassium loss- Spironolactone is a K-sparing diuretic which will reduce K loss effect of thiazide diuretics.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is a serious complication of ergotamine?
A- Depression
B- Headache
C- Hypotension
D- Prolonged vasospasm
The Correct Answer is D- Prolonged vasospasm- This is the most dangerous side effect that can lead to coronary vasoconstriction.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs inhibits ribonucleotide reductase?
A- 5-Fluorouracil
B- Hydroxyurea
C- Mycophenolate
D- Ribavirin
The correct answer is B- Hydroxyurea.
Hydroxyurea is a medication that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase. It interferes with the enzyme's activity, reducing the production of deoxyribonucleotides and inhibiting DNA synthesis. Hydroxyurea is used in the treatment of various conditions, including certain types of cancer, sickle cell disease, and other hematological disorders.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is the initial therapy for Alzheimer disease?
A- Carbachol
B- Donepezil
C- Methacholine
D- Pilocarpine
The initial therapy for Alzheimer's disease typically involves the use of a class of medications known as cholinesterase inhibitors. These medications help increase the levels of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognition, in the brain. Among the options you provided, the correct answer is B- Donepezil.
Carbachol, methacholine, and pilocarpine are not typically used as initial therapies for Alzheimer's disease. Carbachol and methacholine are primarily used for other medical purposes, such as treating glaucoma or as diagnostic agents for certain respiratory conditions. Pilocarpine is primarily used to treat dry mouth caused by certain medical conditions or medications, and it is not a standard treatment for Alzheimer's disease.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following local anesthetics can NOT be given parenterally due to its physicochemical properties?
A- Benzocaine
B- Etidocaine
C- Mepivacaine
D- Procaine
The local anesthetic that cannot be given parenterally due to its physicochemical properties is Benzocaine (option A). Benzocaine is a local anesthetic commonly used for topical applications, such as numbing the skin or mucous membranes. It has poor water solubility and is predominantly used in creams, ointments, sprays, and lozenges for local use.
Parenteral administration refers to the administration of a drug by a route other than through the gastrointestinal tract, such as intravenous, intramuscular, or subcutaneous injection. Benzocaine is not suitable for parenteral administration because of its poor water solubility, which can lead to issues with drug distribution, absorption, and potential complications.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following cephalosporins belongs to the third generation?
A- Cefaclor
B- Cefixime
C- Cefoxitin
D- Ceftin
The correct answer is B- Cefixime.
Cefixime is a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. Third-generation cephalosporins are characterized by their extended spectrum of activity against Gram-negative bacteria compared to earlier generations. They also retain activity against some Gram-positive bacteria.
Cefaclor, on the other hand, belongs to the second generation of cephalosporins. It has a narrower spectrum of activity compared to third-generation cephalosporins.
Cefoxitin is a cephamycin antibiotic and is not considered a cephalosporin. It has a similar spectrum of activity as third-generation cephalosporins but is structurally distinct.
Ceftin is a brand name for cefuroxime, which is a second-generation cephalosporin. It is not a third-generation cephalosporin.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is used as sleeping pills and is considered over-the-counter preparation?
A- Fexofenadine
B- Melatonin
C- Temazepam
D- Zolpidem
The Correct Answer is B- Melatonin- It is a natural product sold over the counter to facilitate sleep. Fexofenadine is non-drowsy over the counter pills for allergy. Temazepam and zolpidem are prescribed sleeping pills.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Myalgia and rhabdomyolysis may follow the use of which one of the following drug groups?
A-Beta blockers
B-Calcium channel blockers
C-Loop diuretics
D-Statins
The Correct Answer is D- Statins-This group of drugs which include atorvastatin and simvastatin can cause muscle pain, aches and damage. Rarely, it can cause rhabdomyolysis which can lead to renal failure due to accumulation of metabolites.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A- Blocks calcium channels
B- Blocks sodium channels
C- Decreases GABA activity
D- Increases GABA activity
The Correct answer is A- Blocks calcium channels- Ethosuximide blocks thalamic T-type calcium channels. It has some side effects such as fatigue, headache, itching and Stevens Johnsonβs syndrome.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A 73-year-old patient with multiple myeloma has been treated with high doses of doxorubicin. Which of the following may develop during this treatment?
A-Bladder hemorrhage
B-Cardiomyopathy
C-Papilledema
D-Hemolytic anemia
The Correct Answer is B-Cardiomyopathy- High doses of doxorubicin in an old patient can lead to cardiomyopathy resulting in congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antihypertensive medications is appropriate to use for an asthmatic patient?
A- Labetalol
B- Metoprolol
C- Propranolol
D- Timolol
The Correct Answer is B- Metoprolol
Among the options provided, metoprolol is the most appropriate antihypertensive medication for an asthmatic patient. Metoprolol is a selective beta-1 blocker, which means it has less of an effect on beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs compared to non-selective beta-blockers. This reduced impact on the beta-2 receptors makes it a better choice for asthmatic patients as it is less likely to worsen asthma symptoms.
D- M3 cholinergic receptors- They cause stimulation of bronchiolar smooth muscles which leads to bronchoconstriction and pulmonary obstructive symptoms. There are no alpha adrenergic or M2 receptors in the lungs. Beta-2-adrenergic receptorsβ stimulation causes bronchodilation.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Which substance causes yellow-brown color in an old patient with a thigh injury history after 2 weeks of blunt trauma?
A- Bilirubin
B- Hemosiderin
C- Lipofuscin
D- Melanin
The Correct Answer is B- Hemosiderin- It is developed from the iron component of hemoglobin released from destruction of red blood cells at the site of injury.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A 58-year-old man takes verapamil for hypertension and angina. Which of the following is a common adverse effect of high dose of this drug?
A- Constipation
B- Diarrhea
C- Hyperglycemia
D- Sexual dysfunction
A- Constipation- This is a common side effect of calcium channel blockers and could be dose limiting. Other side effects are hypotension, bradycardia and peripheral edema.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the major indication of ondansetron in patients receiving chemotherapy?
A- Hair loss
B- Nausea and vomiting
C- Headache
D- GERD
The major indication of ondansetron in patients receiving chemotherapy is option B: Nausea and vomiting.
Ondansetron is a medication commonly used to prevent and treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). Chemotherapy drugs can cause nausea and vomiting as side effects, which can significantly impact a patient's quality of life and may even lead to complications such as dehydration and malnutrition. Ondansetron belongs to a class of drugs called serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonists, which work by blocking the action of serotonin in the gut and the central nervous system, helping to alleviate nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat depression?
A- Aripiprazole
B- Lorazepam
C- Escitalopram
D- Gabapentin
The Correct Answer is Answer: C- Escitalopram
Escitalopram is commonly used to treat depression. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that helps increase the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can improve mood and alleviate symptoms of depression.
Aripiprazole (option A) is an atypical antipsychotic medication used to treat conditions like schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, but it is not typically considered a first-line treatment for depression.
Lorazepam (option B) is a benzodiazepine medication primarily used to treat anxiety disorders and is not commonly prescribed as a primary treatment for depression.
Gabapentin (option D) is an anticonvulsant medication used to treat seizures and neuropathic pain. It is not typically used as a first-line treatment for depression.
Therefore, the correct answer is C- Escitalopram.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A liposomal preparation of which one of the following medications may reduce the incidence of renal toxicity?
A- Acyclovir
B- Amphotericin B
C- Ketoconazole
D- Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is B- Amphotericin B- It decrease creatinine clearance leading to renal toxicity which can be reduced by using a liposomal preparation of amphotericin B.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medication needed before dental procedure for 1-year-old boy with stable ventricular septal defect?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Ampicillin
C- Azithromycin
D- No medication
The correct answer would be A- Amoxicillin. Prior to a dental procedure, a 1-year-old boy with a stable ventricular septal defect would typically receive prophylactic antibiotic treatment to prevent the risk of infective endocarditis. Amoxicillin is the recommended medication for this purpose.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the first choice in the treatment of beta blocker overdose?
A- Albuterol
B- Flumazenil
C- Glucagon
D- Prednisone
The correct answer is C- Glucagon.
In cases of beta blocker overdose, glucagon is often considered the first-line treatment. Beta blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline (epinephrine) and norepinephrine, which can lead to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output.
Glucagon, a hormone normally produced by the pancreas, has a direct positive inotropic effect on the heart, meaning it increases the strength of cardiac contractions. It can counteract the effects of beta blocker overdose by bypassing the blocked beta receptors and stimulating the heart to contract more forcefully.
While the other options listed (Albuterol, Flumazenil, and Prednisone) have their uses in other situations, they are not the first choice in the treatment of beta blocker overdose.
Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used in the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Flumazenil is a medication used as a specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose or reversal of benzodiazepine sedation.
Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication used to treat a variety of conditions, including inflammatory and immune-mediated disorders.
In the case of beta blocker overdose, glucagon is preferred due to its specific positive inotropic effects on the heart. However, it's essential to consult a medical professional for the appropriate management and treatment of any overdose or medical emergency.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following anticoagulant medications works by binding to thrombin and inhibiting it?
A- Heparin
B- Hirudin
C- Ticlopidine
D- Warfarin
The anticoagulant medication that works by binding to thrombin and inhibiting its activity is hirudin, not any of the options listed. Hirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor derived from leeches. It directly binds to thrombin and prevents its action in the coagulation cascade, thus inhibiting blood clot formation. Hirudin is not commonly used in clinical practice, but it can be employed in specific situations where other anticoagulants are contraindicated.
Among the options provided, heparin (A) is an anticoagulant that works by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which inhibits several clotting factors, including thrombin. Heparin does not directly bind to thrombin but potentiates the action of antithrombin III.
Ticlopidine (C) is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation but does not target thrombin.
Warfarin (D) is a vitamin K antagonist that interferes with the production of several clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. While thrombin is affected indirectly by warfarin through its impact on the clotting cascade, it does not directly bind to thrombin.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is used for cases of Parkinsonβs disease and influenza type A?
A- Amantadine
B- Benztropine
C- Bromocriptine
D- Ribavirin
The Correct Answer is Amantadine is a medication that has been found to be effective in managing symptoms of both Parkinson's disease and influenza type A.
In Parkinson's disease, amantadine is used to help control movement problems such as tremors, stiffness, and difficulty in muscle control. It works by increasing the levels of dopamine in the brain, which is a neurotransmitter involved in movement regulation.
For influenza type A, amantadine is used as an antiviral medication. It works by inhibiting the replication of the influenza A virus within the body, thus reducing the severity and duration of flu symptoms.
It's important to note that amantadine is specifically effective against influenza type A and may not be effective against other types of influenza viruses, such as influenza type B. Additionally, the use of amantadine for influenza treatment may be limited due to the development of viral resistance.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the most prominent side effect of scopolamine?
A- Bradycardia
B- Miosis
C- Mydriasis
D- Profuse sweating
The Correct Answer is C- Mydriasis
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the most effective in midazolam paradoxical reaction?
A- Adrenaline
B- Albuterol
C- Flumazenil
D- Protamine
The most effective drug in managing a midazolam paradoxical reaction is C- Flumazenil.
Midazolam is a benzodiazepine medication often used for sedation and anesthesia. In some cases, instead of causing sedation and relaxation, midazolam can paradoxically cause agitation, restlessness, and aggressive behavior. This paradoxical reaction is uncommon but can occur, particularly in pediatric and elderly patients.
Flumazenil is a selective antagonist of benzodiazepines and is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly terminate their sedative effects. It competitively binds to the same receptor sites as benzodiazepines and can effectively reverse the sedative and paradoxical effects of midazolam.
Therefore, in cases of a midazolam paradoxical reaction, administering flumazenil is the preferred treatment option to counteract the adverse effects and restore the patient to a more calm and sedated state.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antiretroviral drugs is a protease inhibitor?
A- Etravirine
B- Lamivudine
C- Ritonavir
D- Tenofovir
E- Zidovudine
The correct answer is C- Ritonavir. Ritonavir is an antiretroviral drug that belongs to the class of protease inhibitors. It is commonly used in combination with other antiretroviral medications to treat HIV infection. Protease inhibitors work by blocking the action of the HIV protease enzyme, which is necessary for the virus to replicate and produce new copies of itself. This helps to control the spread of the virus in the body and slow down the progression of HIV disease. Etravirine, Lamivudine, Tenofovir, and Zidovudine are all antiretroviral drugs, but they belong to different classes of medications, not protease inhibitors.
let's go through the other options:
A- Etravirine: Etravirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), not a protease inhibitor. It works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is essential for the replication of HIV.
B- Lamivudine: Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), not a protease inhibitor. Like Etravirine, it also targets the reverse transcriptase enzyme to inhibit HIV replication.
D- Tenofovir: Tenofovir is another NRTI and does not fall under the category of protease inhibitors. It works by interfering with the reverse transcriptase enzyme, similar to Lamivudine and Etravirine.
E- Zidovudine: Zidovudine, also known as AZT, is an NRTI and not a protease inhibitor. It was one of the first antiretroviral drugs approved for the treatment of HIV and works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme.
To summarize, the only antiretroviral drug among the options provided that is a protease inhibitor is C- Ritonavir.
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a beta blocker (Class II)?
A- Amiodarone
B- Carvedilol
C- Procainamide
D- Verapamil
The drug that is a beta blocker (Class II) from the options you provided is B- Carvedilol. Amiodarone is a potassium channel blocker (Class III). Procainamide is a sodium channel blocker (Class I). Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker (Class IV).
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs acts directly on dopamine receptors to improve the effects of Parkinsonβs disease?
A- Amantadine
B- Bromocriptine
C- Carbidopa
D- Selegiline
The Correct Answer is Bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor agonist, meaning it directly stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain. By activating dopamine receptors, bromocriptine helps improve the effects of Parkinson's disease, as the condition is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in certain parts of the brain.
Let's briefly go over the other options:
A- Amantadine is not a direct dopamine receptor agonist. It is an antiviral medication that also has anti-Parkinsonian effects, but its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. It is believed to enhance the release of dopamine and inhibit its reuptake, among other effects.
C- Carbidopa is not a drug that acts directly on dopamine receptors. It is often used in combination with levodopa to enhance its effectiveness. Carbidopa works by inhibiting the enzyme called DOPA decarboxylase, which converts levodopa into dopamine outside the brain. By blocking this conversion in peripheral tissues, carbidopa allows more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine there.
D- Selegiline is a selective irreversible monoamine oxidase-B (MAO-B) inhibitor. It increases the levels of dopamine in the brain by inhibiting the enzyme MAO-B, which breaks down dopamine. Selegiline does not act directly on dopamine receptors.
Therefore, the correct option for a drug that acts directly on dopamine receptors to improve the effects of Parkinson's disease is B- Bromocriptine.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following hypoglycemic drugs acts by lowering postprandial hyperglycemia through inhibition of intestinal brush border alpha-glucosidases?
A- Linagliptin
B- Miglitol
C- Rosiglitazone
D- Sitagliptin
The Correct Answer is B- Miglitol- It is the only alpha-glucosidase on the list. Along with acarbose, they delayed carbohydrate hydrolysis and glucose absorption. Linagliptin and sitagliptin acts by inhibition of DPP-4 enzyme and glucagon release while rosiglitazone regulates glucose metabolism and fatty acid storage.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antifungal drugs acts by inhibiting the enzyme, 1, 3-beta-glucan synthase?
A- Amphotericin B
B- Caspofungin
C- Griseofulvin
D- Terbinafine
The antifungal drug that acts by inhibiting the enzyme 1,3-beta-glucan synthase is option B - Caspofungin. Caspofungin is a member of the echinocandin class of antifungal drugs and works by inhibiting the synthesis of 1,3-beta-glucan, an essential component of the fungal cell wall. By inhibiting this enzyme, Caspofungin weakens the cell wall and leads to cell lysis and death of the fungus.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs results in disulfiram- like action when it is accompanied with alcohol?
A- Ampicillin
B- Cefotetan
C- Cimetidine
D- Dipyridamole
The drug that results in a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol is B- Cefotetan.
Disulfiram is a medication used in the treatment of alcoholism that produces unpleasant symptoms such as flushing, nausea, vomiting, and headache when alcohol is consumed. Cefotetan is an antibiotic that can also produce a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol.
Ampicillin, Cimetidine, and Dipyridamole are not known to cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following muscarinic antagonists is mainly used in cases of COPD and asthma?
A- Benztropine
B- Glycopyrrolate
C- Ipratropium
D- Scopolamine
The Correct Answer is C- Ipratropium- It works mainly on the respiratory organ system in cases of asthma and COPD. Benztropine affects CNS and used in cases of Parkinsonism. Glycopyrrolate is used as a preoperative to reduce airway secretions and in children to reduce saliva and drooling. Scopolamine is used in motion sickness.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is used in combination with cyclophosphamide to protect against hemorrhagic cystitis?
A- Mensa
B- Ondansetron
C- Riboflavin
D- Vitamin B6
A- Mensa- It is given prophylactically to patients on chemotherapy with cyclophosphamide to avoid its complication, hemorrhagic cystitis.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs acts by inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissues and reduction of hepatic VLDL synthesis?
A- Atorvastatin
B- Cholestyramine
C- Ezetimibe
D- Niacin
The Correct Answer is D- Niacin- It inhibits hormone-sensitive lipase. Atorvastatin inhibits conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate which is a cholesterol precursor. Cholestyramine prevents intestinal absorption of bile acids with ezetimibe prevent cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a synthetic analog of aldosterone and used in primary adrenal deficiency to replace mineralocorticoid?
A- Cinacalcet
B- Demeclocycline
C- Fludrocortisone
D- Sevelamer
The Correct Answer is C- Fludrocortisone- It is the only one on the list that is used in primary adrenal deficiency. Cinacalcet is used in secondary hyperparathyroidism. Demeclocycline is used in SIADH while sevelamer is used in hyperphosphatemia.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A young patient receives anti-tuberculosis therapy for the last 6 months. Which one of the following medications results in red color to body secretions?
A- Ethambutol
B- Isoniazid
C- Pyrazinamide
D- Rifampin
The Correct Answer is D-Rifampin- It is the only one on the answer options that causes red color to body secretions. Ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis. Pyrazinamide may cause hyperuricemia while isoniazid may lead to peripheral neuropathy.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Coronary vasospasm is a devastating reaction to which one of the following drugs?
A- Amphetamines
B- Niacin
C- Rifampin
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is A- Amphetamines- Coronary vasospasm can be a devastating side effect to cocaine, ergot alkaloids, amphetamines and sumatriptan.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications inhibits folic acid synthesis through inhibition of dihydropteroate synthetase?
A- Ciprofloxacin
B- Pyrimethamine
C- Sulfonamides
D- Trimethoprim
C- Sulfonamides- It is used in combination with trimethoprim due to multiple resistance when used alone. Sulfasalazine is used in rheumatoid arthritis and ulcerative colitis. Ciprofloxacin is not an inhibitor of folic acid synthesis. Trimethoprim and pyrimethamine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is considered as the first choice in a recently diagnosed grand mal epilepsy?
A- Ethosuximide
B- Phenytoin
C- Topiramate
D- Tiagabine
B- Phenytoin- It is the first line of treatment. Continued use of it depends on its effectiveness and tolerance.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs blocks the urinary excretion of penicillin which leads to prolonged high serum concentration?
A- Chloramphenicol
B- Cimetidine
C- Probenecid
D- Rifampicin
The drug that blocks the urinary excretion of penicillin and leads to prolonged high serum concentration is Probenecid (Option C). Probenecid inhibits the secretion of penicillin by the renal tubules, which results in increased plasma concentrations of penicillin. This effect is useful in treating certain infections, such as gonorrhea, where higher concentrations of penicillin are required to be effective.
Chloramphenicol (Option A) is an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, but it does not affect penicillin excretion.
Cimetidine (Option B) is an H2 receptor antagonist that reduces stomach acid production and is used to treat peptic ulcers and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). It does not affect penicillin excretion.
Rifampicin (Option D) is an antibiotic that is used to treat tuberculosis and other bacterial infections. It induces the metabolism of drugs in the liver, including penicillin, which can result in lower plasma concentrations of penicillin.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is considered as the first choice in a recently diagnosed grand mal epilepsy?
A- Ethosuximide
B- Phenytoin
C- Topiramate
D- Tiagabine
The Correct Answer is B- Phenytoin is considered as the first choice in a recently diagnosed grand mal epilepsy. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant drug that is effective in preventing or stopping grand mal seizures. It works by blocking the sodium channels in the neurons, which helps to reduce the electrical activity in the brain and prevent seizures. However, the choice of medication for epilepsy can vary depending on individual circumstances, and it is important to consult with a medical professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antiviral medications is a neuraminidase inhibitor?
A-Acyclovir
B-Lopinavir
C-Oseltamivir
D-Ritonavir
The Correct Answer is C-Oseltamivir- It is the only one on the list that is neuraminidase inhibitor. Acyclovir is a DNA polymerase inhibitor and both lopinavir and ritonavir are protease inhibitors.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- In liver failure, which one of the following medications is used to avoid phase 1 metabolism?
A-Buprenorphine
B-Diazepam
C-Imipramine
D-Lorazepam
The Correct Answer is D-Lorazepam- This medication and oxazepam are the only benzodiazepines that undergo only phase II metabolism. Other listed drugs undergo first pass metabolism.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Prolonged use of which one of the following diuretics can lead to hyperkalemia and gynecomastia?
A- Atherosclerosis
B- Arteriosclerosis
C- Embolism
D- Thrombosis
The Correct Answer is C- Embolism- It is the most common condition due to frequent immobilization of patients with Parkinsonism. Other conditions are rare in general.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Prolonged use of which one of the following diuretics can lead to hyperkalemia and gynecomastia?
A-Acetazolamide
B-Furosemide
C-Hydrochlorothiazide
D-Spironolactone
The Correct Answer is D-Spironolactone- It is a potassium-sparing diuretic acts by blocking aldosterone at its receptor resulting in high serum potassium and gynecomastia.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the first line therapy for gastroparesis in patients with diabetes?
A- Metoclopramide
B- Omeprazole
C- Ondansetron
D- Cimetidine
The first-line therapy for gastroparesis in patients with diabetes is metoclopramide. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that enhances gastric emptying and improves gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and early satiety. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is used to reduce gastric acid secretion and is not a first-line therapy for gastroparesis. Ondansetron is an antiemetic that is used to treat nausea and vomiting but is not a prokinetic agent and is not a first-line therapy for gastroparesis. Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist that is used to reduce gastric acid secretion and is not a prokinetic agent and is not a first-line therapy for gastroparesis.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications should be taken on an empty stomach and at least one hour before meals?
A- Aspirin
B- Levothyroxine
C- Prednisone
D- Propranolol
The Correct Answer is B- Levothyroxine- The only one on the list that should be taken that way. Other drugs on the list should be taken with food.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the main step in treating alcoholic liver disease?
A- Abstinence
B- Baclofen
C- Disulfiram
D- Naltrexone
The Correct Answer is A- Abstinence- It is the mainstay of the treatment of alcoholic liver diseases. Drugs are used as supportive.
Abstinence is the main step in treating alcoholic liver disease. The first and most crucial step in treating alcoholic liver disease is to stop drinking alcohol completely. This is because continued alcohol consumption can worsen liver damage and prevent the liver from healing. Once a person has stopped drinking, the liver may be able to regenerate and heal itself over time, depending on the severity of the damage. Baclofen, disulfiram, and naltrexone are medications that can be used to treat alcohol addiction, but they are not the main step in treating alcoholic liver disease.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-acne drugs acts by induction of apoptosis in sebaceous glands?
A- Azelaic acid
B- Benzoyl peroxide
C- Isotretinoin
D- Tetracycline
The drug that acts by induction of apoptosis in sebaceous glands is Isotretinoin. Therefore, the correct option is C.Azelaic acid is a topical medication that reduces the production of keratin, which can contribute to the formation of acne.Benzoyl peroxide works by killing the bacteria that cause acne, reducing inflammation and helping to prevent the formation of new acne lesions.Tetracycline is an antibiotic medication that works by reducing the growth of bacteria that contribute to the formation of acne.Isotretinoin, also known as Accutane, is a medication that is used to treat severe acne. It works by reducing the production of sebum, which is the oily substance that can clog pores and contribute to the formation of acne. It also induces apoptosis, or programmed cell death, in sebaceous glands, which can help to further reduce the production of sebum.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of these drugs is associated with aplastic anemia?
A- Chloramphenicol
B- Metronidazole
C- Nitrofurantoin
D- Penicillin
Aplastic anemia is a rare but serious blood disorder in which the body's bone marrow doesn't produce enough new blood cells. It can be caused by several factors, including exposure to certain drugs. Among the given options, the drug that is most commonly associated with aplastic anemia is Chloramphenicol.Therefore, the correct answer is A- Chloramphenicol.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications may cause acute cholestatic hepatitis?
A- Acarbose
B- Colchicine
C- Erythromycin
D- Metformin
The medication that may cause acute cholestatic hepatitis is erythromycin (option C). Acarbose (option A) and metformin (option D) are medications used to treat type 2 diabetes, while colchicine (option B) is used to treat gout. None of these medications are known to cause acute cholestatic hepatitis.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is commonly contributing to hypokalemia?
A- Furosemide
B- Lisinopril
C- Spironolactone
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is A- Furosemide, which is commonly known to cause hypokalemia. It is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle in the kidney. This leads to increased urinary excretion of sodium, chloride, and potassium, resulting in hypokalemia.
B- Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used for the treatment of hypertension and heart failure, and it is not known to cause hypokalemia.
C- Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that promotes the excretion of sodium and the retention of potassium. It is not expected to cause hypokalemia, but it can cause hyperkalemia in some cases.
D- Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is used for the treatment of hypertension, angina, and cardiac arrhythmias. It is not typically associated with hypokalemia.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following beta blockers has the longest duration of action?
A- Metoprolol
B- Nadolol
C- Propranolol
D- Sotalol
B- Nadolol- It is anti-hypertensive drug and has the longest duration of action compared to the other options.
Nadolol has a half-life of around 20 to 24 hours, which is much longer than the other options. Metoprolol has a half-life of around 3 to 7 hours, Propranolol has a half-life of around 4 to 6 hours, and Sotalol has a half-life of around 10 hours. It is important to note that the duration of action may vary depending on the individual patient's metabolism and other factors.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is selectively used in NSAID-induced gastric ulcer?
A- Bismuth
B- Cimetidine
C- Famotidine
D- Misoprostol
The medication that is selectively used in NSAID-induced gastric ulcer is D- Misoprostol. Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue that has cytoprotective properties and is used to prevent and treat NSAID-induced gastric ulcers. It works by increasing the production of protective mucus in the stomach and decreasing acid secretion. Bismuth is used for Helicobacter pylori eradication, while Cimetidine and Famotidine are H2 receptor antagonists that decrease acid secretion and are used to treat acid reflux and peptic ulcer disease.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Reflex tachycardia caused by systemic albuterol can be blocked by which of the following medications?
A- Dobutamine
B- Metoprolol
C- Phenylephrine
D- Prazosin
The Correct Answer is B- Metoprolol- Beta blocker is the only choice that blocks beta agonists such as albuterol.
Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that is commonly used in the treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It acts on beta-2 receptors in the lungs to cause bronchodilation, but it can also stimulate beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to an increase in heart rate.
This increase in heart rate is known as reflex tachycardia and can be blocked by beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonists, such as metoprolol. Dobutamine is a beta-1 agonist and would therefore exacerbate reflex tachycardia. Phenylephrine is an alpha-1 agonist and would not affect beta receptors, while prazosin is an alpha-1 antagonist and would have no effect on reflex tachycardia caused by albuterol.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following analgesics inhibits COX in CNS and can be used safely for pregnant women?
A- Acetaminophen
B- Acetylsalicylic acid
C- Ibuprofen
D- Naproxen
The Correct Answer is A- Acetaminophen is the analgesic that inhibits COX in the CNS and is considered safe for use during pregnancy. Acetaminophen is also known as paracetamol and is commonly used to relieve pain and reduce fever. It is a weak inhibitor of COX and mainly exerts its effects by increasing the pain threshold.
B- Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) is an NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, and its use during pregnancy is generally not recommended due to an increased risk of bleeding and premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
C- Ibuprofen and D- Naproxen are also NSAIDs that inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes and are not recommended for use during pregnancy, particularly during the third trimester, as they may increase the risk of premature closure of the ductus arteriosus, decreased amniotic fluid, and prolonged labor.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A patient presents with persistent dry cough and high potassium. Which of the following medications is associated with these side effects?
A- Albuterol
B- Captopril
C- Digoxin
D- Furosemide
The Correct Answer is B- CaptoprilCaptopril, which is an ACE inhibitor commonly used for hypertension and heart failure, is associated with both persistent dry cough and hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) as side effects.Albuterol is a bronchodilator used for asthma and does not typically cause cough or hyperkalemia as side effects.Digoxin is a medication used for heart failure and certain arrhythmias, and it can cause nausea, vomiting, and changes in potassium levels, but it is not typically associated with persistent dry cough.Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for edema and congestive heart failure, and it can cause electrolyte imbalances including low potassium, but it is not typically associated with persistent dry cough.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of these drugs is more beneficial to treat hypertension in diabetic patients?
A- Amlodipine
B- Enalapril
C- Furosemide
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is B- Enalapril
Among the options listed, Enalapril is the drug that is more beneficial to treat hypertension in diabetic patients.
Enalapril belongs to a class of drugs called ACE inhibitors, which are recommended as first-line therapy for hypertension in patients with diabetes. ACE inhibitors have been shown to be effective in reducing blood pressure and improving kidney outcomes in diabetic patients. They also have cardiovascular protective effects.
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that is also commonly used to treat hypertension, but it may not be the first choice for diabetic patients as it has been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events in this population.
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can be used to treat hypertension, but it is not typically the first-line therapy in diabetic patients.
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can also be used to treat hypertension, but it is not typically the first-line therapy in diabetic patients.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antipsychotics has higher affinity to both dopamine and serotonin receptors?
A- Clozapine
B- Fluphenazine
C- Haloperidol
D- Thioridazine
The Correct Answer is A- Clozapine- It is the only one listed that has affinity to both types of receptors.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is most likely protective against the toxicity of doxorubicin?
A- Dexrazoxane
B- Leucovorin
C- Mensa
D- Vitamin C
The Correct Answer is A-Dexrazoxane- It is iron-chelating agent that prevents the formation of free radicals and reduces the well-known cardiotoxicity.
Doxorubicin is a chemotherapy drug commonly used to treat cancer, but it can cause damage to the heart and other organs. Dexrazoxane is a medication that can help protect the heart from the toxic effects of doxorubicin.
Leucovorin is a medication used to decrease the toxic effects of methotrexate, a different chemotherapy drug. Mensa is not a drug and may be a misspelling of the word "mesna," which is a medication used to reduce bladder irritation caused by chemotherapy drugs. Vitamin C is not known to have a protective effect against doxorubicin toxicity.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications effectively lowers intraocular pressure?
A- Atropine
B- Ergonovine
C- Morphine
D- Latanoprost
The Correct Answer is D- Latanoprost is a medication that effectively lowers intraocular pressure.
Latanoprost is a type of prostaglandin analog that works by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye. It is commonly used to treat glaucoma and ocular hypertension, conditions that cause increased pressure within the eye and can lead to vision loss if left untreated.
Atropine, Ergonovine, and Morphine are medications that are used for other medical purposes and do not have a direct effect on intraocular pressure.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is a non-drowsy anti-allergic medication?
A- Cetirizine
B- Chlorpheniramine
C- Diphenhydramine
D- Loratadine
The non-drowsy anti-allergic medication is Loratadine, option D. Cetirizine, option A, can also cause drowsiness in some individuals, although it is considered less sedating than Chlorpheniramine (option B) and Diphenhydramine (option C). Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that has a low sedative effect compared to the first-generation antihistamines Chlorpheniramine and Diphenhydramine.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications should be discontinued if the patient is diagnosed with Parkinsonism?
A- Benztropine
B- Chlorpromazine
C- Pramipexole
D- Trihexyphenidyl
The Correct Answer is B- Chlorpromazine- It is the only antidopaminergic drug on the list. Other drugs are helpful in treating Parkinsonism. Benztropine and trihexyphenidyl are used to relieve tremor and rigidity. Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist and is the best initial therapy for severe Parkinsonism.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of these drugs reverses both muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphorus compounds by restoring cholinesterase?
A-Atracurium
B-Atropine
C-Physostigmine
D-Pralidoxime
The drug that reverses both muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphorus compounds by restoring cholinesterase is option D - Pralidoxime.
Pralidoxime is a cholinesterase reactivator that can reactivate acetylcholinesterase, which has been inhibited by organophosphorus compounds. By reactivating the acetylcholinesterase, Pralidoxime can restore the normal breakdown of acetylcholine and reverse the muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphorus compounds.
Atropine is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine and is used to block the muscarinic effects of excess acetylcholine. Physostigmine is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is used to increase the levels of acetylcholine. Atracurium is a neuromuscular blocking agent and is used to induce muscle relaxation during surgery.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications inhibits cell wall synthesis of bacteria?
A- Aminoglycoside.
B- Carbapenem
C- Clindamycin
D- Erythromycin
The Correct Answer is B- Carbapenem- Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors: Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Carbapenems, Monobactams, Vancomycin, Bacitracin and Cycloserine.
Protein Synthesis Inhibitors: Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines, Spectinomycin, Erythromycin, Lincomycin, Clindamycin and Chloramphenicol
Aminoglycosides (option A) inhibit bacterial protein synthesis.
Clindamycin (option C) inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes.
Erythromycin (option D) also inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes.
Carbapenems (option B) are a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to and inactivating penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), which are enzymes involved in the final steps of bacterial cell wall synthesis. This results in cell death and is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those that are resistant to other antibiotics.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following local anesthesia is mainly used for regional nerve block?
A- Bupivacaine
B- Cocaine
C- Dibucaine
D- Tetracaine
The Correct is A- Bupivacaine- Cocaine and dibucaine are only used for topical while tetracaine is used for spinal anesthesia.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs improves skeletal muscle spasm by acting inside the muscle cell?
A- Botulinum toxin
B- Dantrolene
C- Diazepam
D- Tubocurarine
The Correct Answer is B- Dantrolene- It reduces calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum. A acts on cholinergic nerve endings. C acts on the brain and spinal cord while D acts on neuromuscular junction.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs may cause parkinsonism-like adverse effect?
A- Clozapine
B- Haloperidol
C- Olanzapine
D- Quetiapine
The Correct Answer is B- Haloperidol- although it is a potent and effective antipsychotic, it also have a lot of side effects such as parkinsonism-like effects. Others are atypical antipsychotics with less side effects.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Prazosin blocks which of the following actions of epinephrine?
A- Bronchodilation
B- High stroke volume
C- Mydriasis
D- Tachycardia
The Correct Answer is C- Mydriasis. Prazosin blocks the effects of epinephrine that are mediated through alpha-1 receptors, including the dilation of the pupil (mydriasis) caused by epinephrine's action on alpha-1 receptors in the radial muscle of the iris.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Reflex bradycardia caused by alpha-1-agonists is blocked by which of the following medications?
A- Adrenaline
B- Atropine
C- Metoprolol
D- Phenylephrine
The Correct Answer is B- Atropine- Reflex bradycardia is caused by activation of muscarinic receptors of the heart which are blocked by atropine.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is the best treatment of absence seizures?
A- Bupropion
B- Ethosuximide
C- Haloperidol
D- Methylphenidate
The Correct Answer is B- Ethosuximide
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the most effective in improvement of ascites?
A- Digoxin
B- Hydrochlorothiazide
C- Lisinopril
D- Spironolactone
The Correct Answer is D- Spironolactone.
Ascites is the abnormal accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity and is a common complication of liver cirrhosis. Spironolactone is a diuretic that is commonly used to treat ascites associated with cirrhosis. It works by blocking the action of aldosterone, a hormone that causes the body to retain salt and water, thereby reducing fluid accumulation in the body.
Digoxin, Hydrochlorothiazide, and Lisinopril are medications used for different purposes such as heart failure, hypertension, and arrhythmias, and are not typically used to treat ascites.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is often added to nasal decongestants?
A- Albuterol
B- Epinephrine
C- Norepinephrine
D- Phenylephrine
The Correct Answer is D- Phenylephrine.
Phenylephrine is a medication that belongs to the class of drugs called alpha-agonists. It works by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, which reduces swelling and inflammation, and consequently improves breathing by decreasing congestion in the nose. Therefore, it is commonly added to nasal decongestants to provide relief from nasal congestion caused by various conditions, such as allergies, hay fever, and the common cold.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications works to protect the gastric ulcerated tissue from damage by gastric enzymes and acid through polymerization?
A- Cimetidine
B- Famotidine
C- Omeprazole
D- Sucralfate
The Correct Answer is D- Sucralfate- It is poorly soluble so, it polymerizes in acid and binds to ulcerated tissue and protects it from pepsin and acid.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs may cause pancreatitis as an adverse effect?
A- Acetaminophen
B- Didanosine
C- Clindamycin
D- Rifampin
The Correct Answer is B- Didanosine- It is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor. It may cause pancreatitis. Other drugs that can cause pancreatitis are corticosteroids, alcohol, valproic acid, and azathioprine.
Didanosine, also known as ddl, is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV infection. One of the potential side effects of didanosine is pancreatitis, which is inflammation of the pancreas. Pancreatitis can cause symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Other drugs, such as corticosteroids, thiazide diuretics, and valproic acid, may also cause pancreatitis as an adverse effect. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms while taking any medication.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following interferon drugs has been approved for the treatment of hairy-cell leukemia?
A. Interferon-alpha
B. Interferon-Beta
C. Interferon-Gamma
D. A & B
The Correct Answer is A- Interferon-alpha
Also for kaposi sarcoma, mylogenous leukemia, genital warts caused by papilloma virus.
Interferon-alpha is the only interferon drug that has been approved for the treatment of hairy-cell leukemia. Hairy-cell leukemia is a rare type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Interferon-alpha has been shown to be effective in inducing long-term remission in many patients with this condition. Interferon-beta is primarily used to treat multiple sclerosis, while interferon-gamma is used to treat chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Interferon-alpha.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs has an adverse effect on deafness?
A. Ethacrynic Acid
B. Chlorothiazide
C. Acetazolamide
D. A & B
The Correct Answer is A. Ethacrynic Acid.
Ethacrynic acid is a loop diuretic that is used to treat conditions such as edema and hypertension. It has been associated with ototoxicity, or hearing loss, especially in patients with impaired renal function. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Ethacrynic Acid. Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that has not been reported to cause hearing loss as a side effect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is primarily used to treat glaucoma and altitude sickness and has not been associated with hearing loss.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A patient presents with acute sinusitis for 3 days. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Doxycycline
C- Cephalexin
D- Symptomatic treatment
The Correct Answer is D- Symptomatic treatment- Most cases of acute sinusitis are due to viral infection. Antibiotics are only used if symptoms persist or worsen for more than 7 days.
Based on the provided web search results, the appropriate treatment for a patient presenting with acute sinusitis for 3 days is symptomatic treatment. Acute sinusitis is typically caused by a viral infection and resolves within a week to 10 days without the need for antibiotics unless a bacterial infection develops. Symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications such as pain relievers, nasal decongestants, and saline nasal sprays. Antibiotics are generally not recommended unless there is a bacterial infection, and in such cases, the choice of antibiotic would depend on the specific bacteria involved and the patient's medical history and allergies. Therefore, the appropriate treatment for a patient with acute sinusitis for 3 days is symptomatic treatment. It is essential to monitor the patient's symptoms and follow up if the condition worsens or persists beyond the usual course of illness.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Gingival hyperplasia, granulocytopenia and facial hirsutism are possible side effects of which one of the following medications?
A- Carbamazepine
B- Phenobarbital
C- Phenytoin
D- Valproic acid
The Correct Answer is C- Phenytoin is the medication that can cause gingival hyperplasia, granulocytopenia, and facial hirsutism as side effects.Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication that is used to treat seizures. Gingival hyperplasia, or overgrowth of the gum tissue, is a well-known side effect of phenytoin, especially with long-term use. Granulocytopenia, or a decrease in the number of granulocytes (a type of white blood cell), is a rare but serious side effect of phenytoin. Facial hirsutism, or excessive hair growth on the face, is another possible side effect of phenytoin.Carbamazepine, Phenobarbital, and Valproic acid are also antiepileptic medications, but they do not commonly cause gingival hyperplasia, granulocytopenia, or facial hirsutism as side effects. However, each of these medications can cause other side effects, and it is important to discuss the risks and benefits of any medication with a healthcare provider.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following agents prolongs the duration of nerve block when combined with a local anesthetic?
A- Atropine
B- Dobutamine
C- Epinephrine
D- Isoproterenol
The Correct Answer is C- Epinephrine is the agent that prolongs the duration of nerve block when combined with a local anesthetic. Epinephrine is often added to local anesthetics to reduce bleeding and prolong the anesthetic effect by causing vasoconstriction, which slows the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic into the systemic circulation. This results in a longer duration of anesthesia, which is especially useful in procedures that require prolonged anesthesia or in areas of the body with a rich blood supply.
Atropine, Dobutamine, and Isoproterenol are not used to prolong the duration of nerve block. Atropine is an anticholinergic agent used to counteract the effects of bradycardia or excessive vagal tone during anesthesia. Dobutamine and Isoproterenol are both used to increase cardiac output in cases of shock or low blood pressure.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following oral hypoglycemic drugs is the initial therapy for patients with type 2 diabetes?
A- Acarbose
B- Glyburide
C- Metformin
D- Repaglinide
The Correct Answer is C- Metformin- It is the first line of treatment for patients with pre-diabetes or recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes, if is not contraindicated.
Metformin is recommended as the first-line medication for type 2 diabetes because it is effective in lowering blood glucose levels, has a good safety profile, and is relatively inexpensive compared to other medications. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and increasing insulin sensitivity, which leads to better glucose uptake by the muscles. It also does not cause weight gain or hypoglycemia, which are common side effects of other oral hypoglycemic drugs. Acarbose, glyburide, and repaglinide are alternative oral hypoglycemic drugs, but they are not the first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A- Labetalol
B- Methyldopa
C- Nifedipine
D- Ramipril
The Correct Answer is D- Ramipril is contraindicated in pregnancy.
D- Ramipril- ACE inhibitors are teratogenic and they can damage the fetus. Other listed drugs are safe to use during pregnancy.
Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and its use during pregnancy can cause serious harm to the developing fetus, including congenital malformations, fetal growth restriction, and fetal death. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnancy, especially during the second and third trimesters.
Labetalol, Methyldopa, and Nifedipine are safe and commonly used antihypertensive medications during pregnancy. Labetalol is a beta-blocker, Methyldopa is an alpha-2 receptor agonist, and Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker. These medications have been shown to be effective in controlling blood pressure in pregnant women with hypertension, and have a good safety profile for both the mother and fetus. However, as with any medication, they should only be used under the guidance and supervision of a healthcare provider.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the enzyme responsible for conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?
A- 17 alpha-hydroxylase
B- 3-beta-hydroxylase
C- 5-alpha-reductase
D- Aromatase
The Correct Answer is C- 5-alpha-reductase- Is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. Other enzymes assists in synthesis of testosterone in different stages.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate treatment of chancroid, a bacterial infection caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?
A- Ampicillin
B- Ceftriaxone
C- Ciprofloxacin
D- Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is B- Ceftriaxone- It is the treatment of choice for this condition. It is given as one time intramuscular injection. Another alternative is azithromycin.Ampicillin is not effective against Haemophilus ducreyi, and Ciprofloxacin resistance in Haemophilus ducreyi has been reported in some regions. Vancomycin is not effective against gram-negative bacteria like Haemophilus ducreyi. Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that has shown high efficacy against Haemophilus ducreyi and is currently recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) as the first-line therapy for chancroid.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is a contraindication of use of benzodiazepines in anxiety disorder?
A- Diabetes mellitus
B- Seizures
C- Sleep apnea
D- Smoking
The Correct Answer is C- Sleep apnea- It is dangerous to use in cases of sleep apnea but other conditions are not that risky.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications may cause acquired angioedema within days to weeks after starting it?
A- Aspirin
B- Benazepril
C- Clopidogrel
D- Propranolol
The Correct Answer is B - Benazepril is an ACE inhibitor medication commonly used for treating hypertension and heart failure. Acquired angioedema is a known rare side effect of ACE inhibitors and occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin, a peptide that causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, leading to the swelling of the face, lips, tongue, and airways.
Aspirin and clopidogrel are antiplatelet medications, and propranolol is a beta-blocker. These medications are not known to cause acquired angioedema.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- What is the proper treatment of ventricular fibrillation?
A- Digoxin and verapamil
B- Immediate cardioversion
C- Morphine and nitroglycerin
D- Metoprolol and heparin
The proper treatment of ventricular fibrillation is immediate cardioversion, which is a medical procedure that uses an electrical shock to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that requires urgent intervention to prevent cardiac arrest and death.The other options listed - Digoxin and verapamil, morphine and nitroglycerin, and metoprolol and heparin - are not appropriate treatments for ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin and verapamil are used to treat certain types of arrhythmias, but they are not effective for ventricular fibrillation. Morphine and nitroglycerin are used to manage chest pain in patients with acute coronary syndromes, but they do not treat ventricular fibrillation. Metoprolol and heparin may be used in the management of acute coronary syndromes, but they are not effective treatments for ventricular fibrillation.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following cephalosporins belongs to the third generation?
A- Cefaclor
B- Cefixime
C- Cefoxitin
D- Ceftin
The Correct Answer is Cefixime. Cefixime is a third-generation cephalosporin that is used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections. It has a broad spectrum of activity against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria and has good oral bioavailability. I apologize for any confusion my previous answer may have caused.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs has the shortest half-life and used in acute anxiety?
A- Alprazolam
B- Chlordiazepoxide
C- Clonazepam
D- Flurazepam
The drug with the shortest half-life that is used in acute anxiety is Alprazolam. Therefore, the correct answer is A - Alprazolam.
Alprazolam is a short-acting benzodiazepine with a half-life of about 11 hours. Its quick onset of action and short half-life make it an effective medication for the acute treatment of anxiety and panic disorders. It is usually prescribed for short-term use because of the risk of dependence and withdrawal symptoms. In contrast, Chlordiazepoxide, Clonazepam, and Flurazepam are longer-acting benzodiazepines and are typically used for conditions such as insomnia or as maintenance therapy for anxiety disorders.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following stain is most likely relevant to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans?
A- Giemsa stain
B- India ink stain
C- Silver stain
D- Ziehl-Neelsen stain
The correct answer is B- India ink stain.
India ink stain is commonly used in the diagnosis of Cryptococcus neoformans, a fungus that can cause meningitis and other infections. The India ink stain is a simple and rapid technique that allows for the detection of the large polysaccharide capsule that surrounds the Cryptococcus neoformans yeast cells. The capsule appears as a clear halo around the yeast cells against a dark background, which makes it easy to see under a microscope.Giemsa stain (A) is used to stain blood smears for the diagnosis of malaria and other parasitic infections.Silver stain (C) is used to detect the presence of fungi, including Pneumocystis jirovecii, which can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals.Ziehl-Neelsen stain (D) is used to stain acid-fast bacteria, including Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the causative agent of tuberculosis.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
A drug that is used to treat Helminthic infections for nematodes is one of the following?
A. Cladribine
B. Ivermectin
C. Flucytosine
D. Etidronate
The drug that is used to treat helminthic infections for nematodes is B. Ivermectin.
Ivermectin is a broad-spectrum antiparasitic drug that is commonly used to treat helminthic infections for nematodes. It works by binding to specific receptors in nerve and muscle cells of parasites, leading to paralysis and death of the parasites. Ivermectin is particularly effective against onchocerciasis (river blindness) and lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis), both of which are caused by nematode parasites. It is also used to treat other helminthic infections, such as strongyloidiasis and scabies. Cladribine is used to treat hairy cell leukemia, Flucytosine is used to treat fungal infections, Etidronate is used to treat osteoporosis and Itraconazole is used to treat fungal infections.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is the safest one to use in hypertension during pregnancy?
A- Ξ±-methyldopa
B- Clonidine
C- Lisinopril
D- Verapamil
A- Ξ±-methyldopa- It is the only one on the list that is considered safe in pregnancy It has some side effects such as hemolysis and SLE-like syndrome.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common complication that requires careful management to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Among the antihypertensive medications, Ξ±-methyldopa is the preferred choice during pregnancy. It has been extensively studied and has been shown to be safe and effective in reducing blood pressure without harming the fetus.Clonidine, Lisinopril, and Verapamil are not recommended for use during pregnancy because they have been associated with fetal harm and potential complications. Clonidine and Verapamil may lead to fetal growth restriction and developmental abnormalities, while Lisinopril is known to cause fetal malformations, including renal damage and death.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs reverses the effects of heparin?
A- Chloroquine
B- Epinephrine
C- Protamine
D- Warfarin
The drug that reverses the effects of heparin is Protamine. Therefore, the answer is C. Chloroquine, Epinephrine, and Warfarin are not used to reverse the effects of heparin. Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug, Epinephrine is a hormone that can be used to treat severe allergic reactions, and Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots.Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin because it forms a stable complex with heparin, which neutralizes its anticoagulant effects. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by binding to antithrombin III, which inhibits blood clotting. However, in some situations, it may be necessary to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin quickly, such as during surgery or in cases of heparin overdose. In such situations, protamine is given intravenously to bind with and inactivate heparin.Chloroquine, Epinephrine, and Warfarin do not reverse the effects of heparin. Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that works by inhibiting the growth of the malaria parasite. Epinephrine is a hormone that can be used to treat severe allergic reactions by increasing blood pressure and opening airways in the lungs. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors.
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a sodium channel blocker (Class I)?
A- Amiodarone
B- Carvedilol
C- Procainamide
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is C- Procainamide. The drug that belongs to sodium channel blocker (Class I) is Procainamide (Option C).Amiodarone (Option A) is a class III antiarrhythmic drug that blocks potassium channels, while Carvedilol (Option B) is a beta-blocker that acts on adrenergic receptors. Verapamil (Option D) is a calcium channel blocker that acts on the L-type calcium channels.
Q- Which one of the following medications act as bacteriostatic by inhibiting bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?
A- Ciprofloxacin
B- Dapsone
C- Sulfamethoxazole
D- Trimethoprim
The Correct Answer is D- Trimethoprim.
The medication that acts as bacteriostatic by inhibiting bacterial dihydrofolate reductase is D) Trimethoprim. Trimethoprim is a commonly used antibiotic that is often used in combination with sulfamethoxazole to create the medication co-trimoxazole (also known as TMP-SMX). The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is commonly used to treat bacterial infections, including urinary tract infections, respiratory infections, and gastrointestinal infections. By inhibiting the bacterial dihydrofolate reductase enzyme, trimethoprim prevents the production of folic acid, which is essential for bacterial growth and reproduction. This ultimately leads to bacterial cell death and the resolution of the infection.
Q- Mifepristone is indicated in the medical termination of pregnancy. It acts as an antagonist at which one of the following receptors?
A- Dopamine receptors
B- Estrogen receptors
C- Muscarinic receptors
D- Progesterone receptors
The Correct Answer is D- Progesterone receptors- Mifepristone is an antagonist at progesterone and glucocorticoid receptors. It stimulates uterine contractility and increases prostaglandins through inhibition of prostaglandin dehydrogenase. It also blocks cortisol receptor binding and reduces excess cortisol effects is cases of Cushing syndrome.
Q- Which one of the following medications can be used safely in a case of hepatic cirrhosis or liver failure?
A- Fluoxetine
B- Lorazepam
C- Metronidazole
D- Warfarin
Among the given options, Lorazepam can be used safely in a case of hepatic cirrhosis or liver failure. It is the only one on the list that is conjugated extrahepatically so, it is not metabolized by hepatic cytochrome P450.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that is commonly used to manage anxiety, seizures, and insomnia. It is metabolized primarily by the liver, and its metabolites are excreted by the kidneys. Unlike some other benzodiazepines, Lorazepam has a relatively short half-life, which reduces the risk of accumulation in patients with impaired liver function.Fluoxetine is an antidepressant that is metabolized by the liver, and its active metabolite can accumulate in patients with liver impairment, leading to increased side effects and toxicity.Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is metabolized by the liver, and its use in patients with hepatic cirrhosis or liver failure can lead to increased accumulation and potential toxicity.Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is metabolized by the liver, and its use in patients with liver impairment can increase the risk of bleeding due to the impaired synthesis of clotting factors.It's important to note that even though Lorazepam can be used safely in hepatic cirrhosis or liver failure, the dosing needs to be adjusted to avoid over-sedation and other side effects. The patient's liver function should be closely monitored, and the medication should be used with caution.
Q- Which of the following medications increases cardiac output in pulmonary edema following myocardial infarction?
A- Dobutamine
B- Lisinopril
C- Metoprolol
D- Verapamil
The Correct Answer is A- Dobutamine is a medication that increases cardiac output and is commonly used to treat pulmonary edema following myocardial infarction.
Pulmonary edema is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs, causing difficulty breathing and reduced oxygenation. It is a common complication of myocardial infarction (heart attack) and can lead to further cardiac damage if not treated promptly.
Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic medication that stimulates beta-1 receptors in the heart, leading to increased cardiac contractility and heart rate. This results in an increase in cardiac output, which can help to alleviate pulmonary edema and improve oxygenation.
B- Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. While it can be beneficial for patients with heart failure, it does not directly increase cardiac output and is not typically used as a first-line treatment for pulmonary edema.
C- Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that is commonly used to treat hypertension and prevent further myocardial damage following a heart attack. While it can be beneficial for patients with heart failure, it works by reducing heart rate and contractility, which can decrease cardiac output and is not typically used as a first-line treatment for pulmonary edema.
D- Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that is commonly used to treat hypertension and angina. While it can be beneficial for patients with heart failure, it works by reducing heart rate and contractility, which can decrease cardiac output and is not typically used as a first-line treatment for pulmonary edema.
Q- Which one of the following drugs blocks the urinary excretion of penicillin which leads to prolonged high serum concentration?
A- Chloramphenicol
B- Cimetidine
C- Probenecid
D- Rifampicin
The Correct Answer is C- Probenecid- It delays the tubular secretion of penicillin resulting in high serum concentration for a long period of time.
The drug that blocks the urinary excretion of penicillin which leads to prolonged high serum concentration is C) Probenecid.Probenecid is a medication that is primarily used to increase the concentration of certain antibiotics, including penicillins, in the blood by reducing their excretion into the urine. By inhibiting the tubular secretion of penicillin in the kidneys, probenecid can prolong the half-life of penicillin in the body and enhance its effectiveness.Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that works by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis. Cimetidine is a medication that reduces the production of stomach acid and is used to treat acid reflux and ulcers. Rifampicin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, including tuberculosis. None of these drugs are known to affect the urinary excretion of penicillin.
Q- Which of the following is the currently drug of choice for the treatment of cutaneous anthrax?
A- Azithromycin
B- Ciprofloxacin
C- Gentamicin
D- Penicillin
The Correct Answer is B- Ciprofloxacin.
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that is effective against Bacillus anthracis, the bacterium that causes anthrax. It is the preferred drug for the treatment of cutaneous anthrax, which is the most common form of the disease, and it is also effective in the treatment of inhalational anthrax. Other antibiotics that are effective against anthrax include doxycycline, penicillin, and amoxicillin, but ciprofloxacin is currently the drug of choice.
Azithromycin and gentamicin are not first-line antibiotics for the treatment of anthrax. Penicillin may be effective against anthrax, but ciprofloxacin is preferred due to its broad spectrum of activity against the bacterium.
Q- Which one of the following diuretics may elevate blood glucose level in some patients?
A- Acetazolamide
B- Hydrochlorothiazide
C- Spironolactone
D- Triamterene
The Correct Answer is The diuretic that may elevate blood glucose levels in some patients is B- Hydrochlorothiazide.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that can cause hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in some patients. This is because thiazide diuretics can reduce insulin sensitivity and impair glucose tolerance, which can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels.
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretic that is not known to cause hyperglycemia. Spironolactone and Triamterene are potassium-sparing diuretics and do not affect blood glucose levels.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following substances is used in mercury poisoning?
A- Flumazenil
B- Fomepizole
C- Methylene blue
D- Succimer
The Correct Answer is D- Succimer. The substance used in mercury poisoning is Succimer (option D). Succimer is a chelating agent that binds to mercury in the body, allowing it to be excreted in the urine. Flumazenil is a medication used to treat benzodiazepine overdose. Fomepizole is used to treat methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning. Methylene blue is used to treat methemoglobinemia, a condition where the blood is unable to carry oxygen properly.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine is competitively inhibited by which of the following medications?
A- Atropine
B- Edrophonium
C- Physostigmine
D- Pralidoxime
The Correct Answer is A- Atropine competitively inhibits the stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine.
Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic receptors, which means it blocks the binding of agonists like pilocarpine to these receptors. Atropine competes with pilocarpine for binding to muscarinic receptors and has a higher affinity for them. Therefore, atropine can effectively inhibit the stimulation of muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine, leading to the blockade of its effects on the body.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Hepatosteatosis (fatty liver) is an adverse effect of one of the following antiviral classes of drugs?
A. NRTIs
B. NNRTIs
C. HIV Protease inhibitors
D. Integrase inhibitors
The Correct Answer is NRTIs ( Nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors).
NRTIs (nucleoside and nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors) have been associated with hepatosteatosis, which is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fat in the liver.NRTIs, such as stavudine and zidovudine, have been shown to cause mitochondrial toxicity, which can lead to an imbalance in lipid metabolism and an accumulation of fat in the liver. This can lead to the development of hepatosteatosis.While HIV protease inhibitors were initially thought to be associated with hepatosteatosis, more recent studies have suggested that the risk of hepatosteatosis may be higher with certain NRTIs.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following intravenous anesthesia has antiemetic action?
A- Fentanyl
B- Ketamine
C- Propofol
D- Thiopental
The Correct Answer is C- Propofol- It has antiemetic action but it is not indicated in cases of emesis due to its major side effects.
Propofol is a commonly used intravenous anesthetic that acts as a sedative-hypnotic. In addition to its anesthetic properties, propofol has been shown to have antiemetic effects, meaning it can help prevent nausea and vomiting after surgery. This makes it a particularly useful choice for patients who are at high risk for post-operative nausea and vomiting. Fentanyl (option A), Ketamine (option B), and Thiopental (option D) do not have significant antiemetic effects.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the most fatal in drugβs overdose?
A- Bupropion
B- Citalopram
C- Imipramine
D- Phenelzine
The Correct Answer is C- Imipramine- Overdose of tricyclic antidepressants causes fatal arrhythmias and seizures.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following effects is correlated to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor stimulation?
A- Bradycardia
B- Bronchodilation
C- Tachycardia
D- Vasoconstriction
The Correct Answer is C- Tachycardia- Beta 1 affects the heart causing tachycardia while Beta 2 stimulation leads to bronchodilation.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following is the best treatment of trigeminal neuralgia?
A- Carbamazepine
B- Fluoxetine
C- Methylphenidate
D- Riboflavin
The Correct Answer is A- Carbamazepine- It is the only one on the list effective to subsides trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine is considered to be the best treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, also known as tic douloureux. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant medication that is effective in reducing the frequency and severity of trigeminal neuralgia attacks. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant, Methylphenidate is a stimulant used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), and Riboflavin is a B-vitamin. None of these are typically used to treat trigeminal neuralgia. However, multiple treatment options are available, and the best one for a particular person may vary based on individual factors such as their medical history, the severity of their condition, and their personal preferences.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Amiodarone is considered one of which of the following classes of anti-arrhythmic drugs?
A- Class I
B- Class II
C- Class III
D- Class IV
The Correct Answer is C- Class III- Amiodarone is one of the potassium-channel blockers. Class I are sodium-channel blockers, Class II are beta blockers while Class IV are calcium-channel blockers.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications acts by facilitating GABA-mediated conduction of chloride ion?
A- Baclofen
B- Buspirone
C- Midazolam
D- Morphine
The Correct Answer is C- Midazolam- Benzodiazepines bind to GABA receptor-chloride ion channels to increase the frequency of their opening. Baclofen acts centrally as a muscle relaxant. Buspirone is a selective anxiolytic acts as partial agonist at SHT receptors. Morphine activates the descending inhibitory pathways of the CNS.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications acts at the proximal tubule of the kidney?
A- Acetazolamide
B- Furosemide
C- Hydrochlorothiazide
D- Spironolactone
The Correct Answer is A- Acetazolamide.
Acetazolamide acts at the proximal tubule of the kidney to inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. This leads to a decrease in the reabsorption of bicarbonate, leading to an increase in bicarbonate excretion. This results in a decrease in blood pH and increased renal excretion of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions, making acetazolamide a useful diuretic and antiepileptic drug.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in a case of osteoporosis?
A- Albuterol
B- Calcium oxalate
C- Prednisone
D- Simvastatin
The Correct Answer is C-Prednisone- All glucocorticoids including prednisone and cortisone inhibits bone formation and accelerate its resorption.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the most effective treatment of a case of an old man with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
A- Doxazosin
B- Finasteride
C- Doxazosin and finasteride
D- Propranolol
The Correct Answer is C- Doxazosin and finasteride- This is the most effective treatment to avoid complications such as urinary retention.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is used in opioid overdose?
A-Flumazenil
B- Naloxone
C- Norepinephrine
D- Phencyclidine
The Correct Answer is B- Naloxone- It is the only one on the list that oppose opioid toxicity.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Organophosphorus poisoning can be treated with which of the following agents?
A- Atenolol
B- Atropine
C- Ipratropium bromide
D- Physostigmine
The Correct Answer is B- Atropine- It blocks the action of acetyl choline peripherally and though CNS. Atenolol has no role in this case. Ipratropium bromide doesnβt penetrate BBB and physostigmine would worsen the case.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the best treatment for seizures of eclampsia?
A- Carbamazepine
B- Haloperidol
C- Magnesium sulfate
D- Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is C- Magnesium sulfate.
Magnesium sulfate is the standard treatment for eclampsia because it is an effective anticonvulsant that is also safe for use in pregnant women. It works by blocking nerve impulses and has a calming effect on the muscles. Additionally, magnesium sulfate can help prevent preterm labor and improve maternal and fetal outcomes in women with preeclampsia. Other anticonvulsant medications such as carbamazepine and phenobarbital may also be used to treat seizures in eclampsia, but magnesium sulfate is considered the first-line treatment due to its favorable safety profile and efficacy.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs reduces blood pressure by centrally acting on vasomotor centers?
A- Atenolol
B- Clonidine
C- Enalapril
D- Nifedipine
The Correct Answer is B- Clonidine- It is not indicated for initial therapy of hypertension but it may be used later in combination with other drugs. Its use leads to central alpha 2-adrenergic stimulation which results in decreased sympathetic outflow to the heart, kidney and peripheral vessels.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antibiotics is the empiric treatment of cellulitis in a diabetic patient?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Imipenem
C- Neomycin
D- Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is D- Vancomycin.
Vancomycin is often used as an empiric treatment for cellulitis in diabetic patients because it is effective against the most common causes of cellulitis in this population, including methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Additionally, because diabetes can impair the immune system, diabetic patients may be more susceptible to skin infections caused by resistant bacteria, and vancomycin is one of the few antibiotics that remain effective against these types of bacteria. However, it's important to note that the choice of antibiotic will depend on several factors, including the severity of the infection, the patient's overall health status, and the local antibiotic resistance patterns, and a healthcare professional should be consulted for proper diagnosis and treatment.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A drug that belongs to FIBRATES is one of the following?
A. Gemfibrizol
B. Atorvastatin
C. Niacin
D. Ezetimibe
The Correct Answer is A. Gemfibrizol.
Fibrates are a class of drugs used to lower lipid levels, particularly triglycerides, in the blood. Gemfibrozil is a fibrate that works by activating peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor alpha (PPARΞ±), a protein involved in regulating the metabolism of lipids in the liver. By activating PPARΞ±, gemfibrozil increases the breakdown of fatty acids and the production of lipoproteins that transport lipids away from the liver, leading to reduced levels of triglycerides in the blood.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following antibiotics is the most common one associated with antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis?
A- Chloramphenicol
B- Clindamycin
C- Metronidazole
D- Vancomycin
The Correct Answer is B- Clindamycin- It is the most common antibiotic associated with pseudomembranous colitis. Oral chloramphenicol is no longer used in the USA. Metronidazole and vancomycin are used in the treatment of this condition.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Myalgia and rhabdomyolysis may follow the use of which one of the following drug groups?
A- Beta blockers
B- Calcium channel blockers
C- Loop diuretics
D- Statins
The Correct Answer is D- Statins- This group of drugs which include atorvastatin and simvastatin can cause muscle pain, aches and damage. Rarely, it can cause rhabdomyolysis which can lead to renal failure due to accumulation of metabolites.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs inhibits the reabsorption of HCO3β in the proximal convoluted tubules?
A. Acetazolamide
B. Thiazide
C. Bumetanide
D. Spironolactone
The Correct Answer is A - Acetazolamide,
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which blocks the enzyme responsible for the reabsorption of bicarbonate (HCO3-) in the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney. This leads to increased bicarbonate excretion and a compensatory increase in HCO3- production, which helps to acidify the urine.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antibiotics has NO effect on anaerobes?
A- Ampicillin
B- Clindamycin
C- Metronidazole
D- Tobramycin
The Correct Answer is D- Tobramycin
Tobramycin is a aminoglycoside antibiotic, which primarily target gram-negative bacteria and have no effect on anaerobes.
Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, which works by binding to the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting protein synthesis. Aminoglycosides are primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, but are not effective against gram-positive bacteria or anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic bacteria, which do not require oxygen to survive and grow, have a different type of ribosome than aerobes, so the aminoglycosides cannot bind to them and inhibit protein synthesis. Therefore, Tobramycin is not effective in treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Tobramycin is a aminoglycoside antibiotic, which primarily target gram-negative bacteria and have no effect on anaerobes.
Tobramycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic, which works by binding to the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibiting protein synthesis. Aminoglycosides are primarily effective against gram-negative bacteria, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, but are not effective against gram-positive bacteria or anaerobic bacteria. Anaerobic bacteria, which do not require oxygen to survive and grow, have a different type of ribosome than aerobes, so the aminoglycosides cannot bind to them and inhibit protein synthesis. Therefore, Tobramycin is not effective in treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-Parkinsonism medications should be avoided in patients with glaucoma?
A- Bromocriptine
B- Levodopa
C- Selegiline
D- Trihexyphenidyl
The Correct Answer is D- Trihexyphenidyl- It is contraindicated in cases of glaucoma due to its anticholinergic activity.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-Parkinsonism medications should be avoided in patients with glaucoma?
A- Bromocriptine
B- Levodopa
C- Selegiline
D- Trihexyphenidyl
The Correct Answer is D- Trihexyphenidyl- It is contraindicated in cases of glaucoma due to its anticholinergic activity.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs belongs to ANTIMETABOLITES drugs for Cancer?
A. Methotrexate
B. Capreomycin
C. Lamivudine
D. Indanyl carbenicillin
The Correct Answer is A- Methotrexate
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug because it works by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR), which is involved in the metabolism of folic acid. By inhibiting DHFR, methotrexate interferes with the production of nucleic acids, which are necessary for the growth and division of cancer cells. This leads to the death of the cancer cells.Methotrexate is used to treat a variety of cancers, including breast cancer, head and neck cancer, and leukemia, as well as other non-cancerous conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drug is an HMG COA REDUCTASE INHIBITORS (STATINS)?
A. Niacin
B. Rosuvastatin
C. Fenofibrate
D. Ezetimibe
The Answer is B - Rosuvastatin
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, also known as statins, are a class of drugs that work by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase. This enzyme plays a key role in the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, statins reduce the amount of cholesterol produced by the liver and lower overall cholesterol levels in the body. Rosuvastatin is one such example of a statin drug.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
A drug that belongs to CHOLESTEROL ABSORPTION INHIBITOR is one of the following?
A. Niacin
B. Fluvastatin
C. Fenofibrate
D. Ezetimibe
The Answer is D - Ezetimibe.
Ezetimibe is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor, which means that it blocks the absorption of cholesterol from the gut into the bloodstream. This leads to a decrease in the overall cholesterol levels in the body, specifically LDL cholesterol (the "bad" cholesterol). It works by binding to a protein called NPC1L1, which is involved in the absorption of cholesterol from the gut. By inhibiting the action of this protein, ezetimibe reduces the amount of cholesterol that is absorbed into the bloodstream, resulting in lower cholesterol levels.
It is used to treat high cholesterol levels and to reduce the risk of heart disease.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs results in disulfiram- like action when it is accompanied with alcohol?
A- Ampicillin
B- Cefotetan
C- Cimetidine
D- Dipyridamole
The Answer is B- Cefotetan
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following groups of drugs are useful for a patient suffers from night terrors and sleepwalking?
A- Alcohols
B- Barbiturates
C- Benzodiazepines
D- Tricyclic anti-depressants
The Answer is C- Benzodiazepines- This group of drugs are associated with reduced REM and delta sleep.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- The drug that is a Beta-2 adrenergic selective bronchodilator and provides sustained bronchodilation over 12 hours is the following?
A. Epinephrine
B. Isoproterenol
C. Albuterol
D. Salmeterol
The Correct Answer is D. Salmeterol.
Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that provides sustained bronchodilation over 12 hours. Albuterol is a short-acting Beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that provides rapid bronchodilation.
Salmeterol is a long-acting Beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that provides sustained bronchodilation over 12 hours. Albuterol is a short-acting Beta-2 agonist bronchodilator that provides rapid bronchodilation.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a beta blocker (Class II)?
A- Amiodarone
B- Carvedilol
C- Procainamide
D- Verapamil
The Answer is B- Carvedilol is a beta blocker (Class II) drug.
Carvedilol is a beta blocker because it blocks the effects of the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, on the beta receptors in the body. This results in a reduction of heart rate, blood pressure, and stress on the heart. This type of medication is often used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and heart failure. Beta blockers are classified as Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs binds to the 30S Ribosomal subunit and distorts its structure along with misreading of the mRNA?
A. Erythromycin
B. Azithromycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Telithromycin
The Answer is C - Gentamicin.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs needs to be reviewed and adjusted in a cancer patient before starting treatment with 6-mercaptopurine?
A- Allopurinol
B- Loperamide
C- Meperidine
D- Scopolamine
The Answer is A- Allopurinol- It is used in the treatment of gout. It prevents the formation of uric acid from purines. Metabolism of 6-MP is inhibited by allopurinol which causes toxic effects. Adjustment of doses should be done before starting cancer treatment.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- In cases of premature labor, which one of the following medications is used to accelerate fetal pulmonary maturation?
A-Betamethasone
B-Misoprostol
C-Prednisone
D-Prostacyclin
The Answer is A - Betamethasone is a steroid medication that is commonly used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in cases of premature labor. The medication helps to mature the lungs and prepare them for breathing after birth, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in premature infants. It is typically administered as a series of two injections given 24 hours apart. Misoprostol, Prednisone and Prostacyclin are not used for accelerate fetal pulmonary maturation.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following antihypertensive medications is directly acting vasodilator?
A- Clonidine
B- Enalapril
C- Labetalol
D- Nifedipine
The Answer is D- Nifedipine- It is a calcium-channel blocker that affects the blood vessels directly and leads to vasodilation. The other drugs act indirectly through receptors.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is produced by which of the following nuclei of hypothalamus?
A-Anterior nucleus
B- Arcuate nucleus
C- Dorsomedial nucleus
D- Ventromedial nucleus
The Answer is B- Arcuate nucleus- It produces dopamine, corticotropin-releasing hormone, GH releasing hormone, thyrotropin-releasing hormone and somatostatin.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications inhibits the conversion of testosterone into dihydrotestosterone?
A- Aldosterone
B- Finasteride
C- Leuprolide
D- Spironolactone
The Answer is B - Finasteride- It is the only one on the list that is 5Ξ±-Reductase inhibitor, the enzyme responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. It is used in cases of senile enlarged prostate.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is useful to distinguish nephrogenic from neurogenic diabetes insipidus?
A- Acetazolamide
B- Demeclocycline
C- Desmopressin
D- Hydrochlorothiazide
The Answer is C- Desmopressin- It treats neurogenic DI through selective activation of V2 receptors in the kidney. Nephrogenic DI is treated with thiazides.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A drug that is used to treat Helminthic infections for nematodes is one of the following?
A. Cladribine
B. Ivermectin
C. Flucytosine
D. Etidronate
The Answer is C - B. Ivermectin.
Ivermectin is an anti-parasitic medication used to treat a wide range of parasitic worms, including those that cause infections such as river blindness and strongyloidiasis. It works by binding to specific receptors in the parasites' nerve cells and muscle cells, causing paralysis and death of the parasite. It is particularly effective against nematodes, which are a type of parasitic roundworm. Therefore, it is a very suitable treatment for Helminthic infections caused by nematodes.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
The only drug whose overdose is NOT characterized by both hypotension and bradycardia:
A. Clonidine
B. Verapamil
C. Theophylline
D. Propanolol
The Correct Answer is C. Theophylline is a drug used to treat respiratory disorders such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, making it easier to breathe. An overdose of theophylline can cause symptoms such as seizures, irregular heartbeats, and confusion. However, it is characterized by tachycardia (fast heart rate) instead of bradycardia (slow heart rate) A. Clonidine, B. Verapamil, D. Propanolol are all centrally acting sympatholytic drugs and overdose of these drugs causes both hypotension (low blood pressure) and bradycardia. Clonidine is used to treat high blood pressure and ADHD, an overdose of clonidine causes a significant drop in blood pressure and slows the heart rate. Verapamil is a medication used to treat hypertension, angina and various heart rhythm disorders, an overdose of verapamil causes a significant drop in blood pressure and slows the heart rate. Propanolol is a medication used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart rhythm disorders, an overdose of propanolol can cause a significant drop in blood pressure and slows the heart rate.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q-Which of the following drugs is an ergosterol synthesis inhibitor?
Q- Which of the following drugs is an ergosterol synthesis inhibitor?
A-Acyclovir
B-Ampicillin
C-Ketoconazole
D-Ritonavir
The Answer is C- Ketoconazole is an ergosterol synthesis inhibitor.
Ergosterol is a compound found in the cell membranes of fungi. It is a precursor to vitamin D and has a structure similar to cholesterol, which is found in human cell membranes. Ergosterol synthesis inhibitors are a class of antifungal medications that block the production of ergosterol in fungi. This leads to an accumulation of 14Ξ±-methyl sterols in the cell membrane, which disrupts the integrity of the membrane and leads to the death of the fungus.
Ketoconazole is a prescription antifungal medication that belongs to the class of drugs known as imidazoles. It is used to treat a variety of fungal infections, including ringworm, jock itch, athlete's foot, and fungal infections of the nails. It is also sometimes used to treat skin conditions such as dandruff and seborrheic dermatitis. Ketoconazole works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to the death of the fungus.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause severe bone marrow depression?
A- Cyclosporine
B- Prednisone
C- Sirolimus
D- Tacrolimus
The Answer is D - Tacrolimus is most likely to cause severe bone marrow depression. Cyclosporine, prednisone, and sirolimus can also cause bone marrow depression, but it is more commonly associated with tacrolimus. It is important to regularly monitor blood counts in patients taking these medications and to adjust the dosage as needed. It is also important for patients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms of bone marrow depression, such as fatigue, bruising or bleeding easily, or frequent infections.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Sildenafil is used in the treatment of erectile dysfunction through inhibition of which one of the following phosphodiesterase isoenzymes?
A- PDE2
B- PDE3
C- PDE4
D- PDE5
The Correct Answer is D- PDE5- Inhibition of this isoenzyme leads to accumulation of cyclic GMP which leads to vasodilation and erection.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Morphine is NOT used in which one of the following conditions due to its unwanted effect on the involved organ?
A- Biliary pain
B- Myocardial infarction
C- Post-appendicectomy
D- Pulmonary congestion
The Correct Answer is A- Biliary pain- Morphine is not used in biliary pain because it causes contraction of the sphincter of Oddi leading to spasms. It is recommended in MI and pulmonary congestion due to its vasodilating and sedative actions.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- In a case of methemoglobinemia, which one of the following is the most likely cause of the brown color of the patientβs blood?
A- Carbon monoxide
B- Decreased oxygen affinity
C- Oxidized hemoglobin
D- Reduced hemoglobin
The Answer is C- Oxidized hemoglobin- The brown color is due the oxidation of the iron in the hemoglobin to ferric state (methemoglobin).
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-depressants is most likely effective in bulimia nervosa?
A- Amitriptyline
B- Fluoxetine
C- Imipramine
D- Tranylcypromine
The Answer is B - Fluoxetine.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Outpatient prophylaxis of superior ventricular tachycardia (SVT) is best accomplished by which of the following medications?
A- Adenosine
B- Diltiazem
C- Lidocaine
D- Procainamide
B- Diltiazem Is the correct Answer - It is the only drug of the list that acts on the AV node. Others are either used for treatment or have short actions.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Naloxone is the treatment of choice of which one of the following toxicities?
A- Amitriptyline toxicity
B- Citalopram overdose
C- Hydrocodone toxicity
D- Methylphenidate overdose
The Answer is C- Hydrocodone toxicity.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is used after chemotherapy to increase the leukocyte count if it drops?
A- Atropine
B- Dimercaprol
C- Flumazenil
D- Penicillamine
The Correct Answer is B- Filgrastim.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs acts mainly by blocking the synthesis of leukotrienes?
A -Cromolyn
B- Ipratropium
C- Montelukast
D- Zileuton
The Answer is D- Zileuton. Although Both C & D is correct answer. Both zileuton and montelukast are drugs that are used to treat conditions such as asthma and allergic rhinitis. They work by blocking the synthesis or activity of leukotrienes, which are potent mediators of inflammation that are involved in the development of these conditions.
Zileuton is a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, which means that it blocks the enzyme responsible for synthesizing leukotrienes from arachidonic acid. Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist, which means that it blocks the action of leukotrienes on their receptors.
There is some evidence to suggest that
zileuton may be more effective than montelukast as an additional treatment for acute asthma. However, both drugs are effective treatments for asthma and can be used as part of a treatment plan for this condition. The decision on which one to use should be made by a healthcare provider after considering the specific needs of the individual and taking into account any potential drug interactions or side effects. It is important to follow the recommendations of a healthcare provider and to take the medication as directed in order to achieve the desired therapeutic effect.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following receptors is inhibited by ondansetron to treat nausea following chemotherapy?
A- Dopamine receptors
B- Muscarinic receptors
C- Nicotinic receptors
D- Serotonin 5-HT receptors
The Answer is D- Serotonin 5-HT receptors- Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT-receptor antagonist.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications inhibits fibrinolysis?
A- Aminocaproic acid
B- Heparin
C- Lepirudin
D- Rifampin
The Answer is A-Aminocaproic acid.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following anti-arrhythmic drugs may lead the development of torsade de pointes at therapeutic doses?
A- Adenosine
B- Lidocaine
C- Propranolol
D- Quinidine
The Answer is D- Quinidine- Its use is very strict due to this fatal side effect.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications binds tumor necrosis factor (TNF-Ξ±) and used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
A- Infliximab
B- Methotrexate
C- Paclitaxel
D- Trastuzumab
The Answer is A- Infliximab- It is monoclonal antibody which binds to TNF and used also in ulcerative colitis and some other autoimmune diseases.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate one to treat a case of Legionella pneumonia?
A- Clindamycin
B- Ciprofloxacin
C- Metronidazole
D- Vancomycin
The Answer is B- Ciprofloxacin- It is the treatment of choice in this case. Legionella is acquired from inhalation of contaminated air coming from central air conditioning in big buildings or respiratory therapy equipment. It usually affects older males and is more severe in smokers, alcoholics, diabetics and immunosuppressed patients.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications is helpful to relieve symptoms in a case of chronic heartburn?
A-Cimetidine
B-Milk of magnesium
C-Omeprazole
D-Promethazine
The Answer is C-Omeprazole- This medication is an irreversible inhibitor of H/K/ATPase so, it reduces gastric acid secretion. It is used in the treatment of GERD, peptic ulcer and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A young man complains of daytime sleeping, cataplexy and sleep paralysis. Which of the following is the best treatment?
A- Diazepam
B- Hydroxyzine
C- Modafinil
D- Zolpidem
The Answer is C- Modafinil- This is a case of narcolepsy. Amphetamine derivative such as modafinil is the best treatment of this case.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of amoebic liver abscess?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Amikacin
C- Metronidazole
D- Vancomycin
The Answer is C- Metronidazole.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A patient presents with acute sinusitis for 3 days. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Doxycycline
C- Cephalexin
D- Symptomatic treatment
The Answer is D- Symptomatic treatment- Most cases of acute sinusitis are due to viral infection. Antibiotics are only used if symptoms persist or worsen for more than 7 days.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A drug that is used to treat Helminthic infections for Cestodes is one of the following?
A. Praziquantel
B. Flucytosine
C. Etidronate
D. Albendazole
The Answer is D, Albendazole
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is a weak partial agonist of estrogen receptor in most tissues?
A- Clomiphene
B- Fulvestrant
C- Raloxifene
D-Tamoxifen
The Answer is A- Clomiphene- It is the only one on the list that is weak partial agonist of estrogen receptor. Fulvestrant is a pure anti-estrogen. Raloxifene and tamoxifen are estrogen antagonists but their activity is tissue-specific.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is the first line medication in transplant immunopharmacology?
A- Cyclosporine
B- Methotrexate
C- Sulfasalazine
D- Thalidomide
The Answer is A-Cyclosporine- Methotrexate and sulfasalazine are used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and some cancers. Thalidomide is used in erythema nodosum leprosum and multiple myeloma.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is associated the most to tardive dyskinesia after use for years?
A- Aripiprazole
B- Chlorpromazine
C- Olanzapine
D- Risperidone
The Answer is B- Chlorpromazine
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications prevents cholesterol absorption at small intestine brush border?
A- Colestipol
B- Ezetimibe
C- Fenofibrate
D- Niacin
The Answer is B- Ezetimibe
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following substances induces the closure of patent ductus arteriosus?
A- Estradiol
B- Acetaminophen
C- Indomethacin
D- Prostaglandin E
The Answer is C- Indomethacin
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following side effects is the most common after prolonged use of SSRIs?
A- Headache
B- Insomnia
C- Nausea
D- Sexual dysfunction
The Correct Answer is D
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following agents is used to improve the drug-induced form of Parkinsonism?
A- Bromocriptine
B- Benztropine
C- Dopamine
D- Levodopa
The Correct Answer is B- Benztropine- Drug-induced form of Parkinsonism occurs as a side effect of some drugs such as anti-psychotics, lithium, metoclopramide and MDMA addiction. Benztropine is the first line of treatment as it reduces the extrapyramidal side effects of these drugs.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following symptoms is the most common side effect of diphenhydramine?
A- Anxiety
B- Diarrhea
C- Sedation
D- Urticaria
The Correct Answer is C- Sedation- This is the common side effect of antihistamines. Loratadine is non-drowsy anti-allergic medicine can be used during the day to avoid sedation.
You can try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following agents is a muscarinic cholinomimetic?
A- Atropine
B- Hexamethonium
C- Pilocarpine
D- Tubocurarine
The correct answer is C- Pilocarpine
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs works through inhibition of acetyl-cholinesterase enzyme and used in myasthenia gravis?
A- Atropine
B- Montelukast
C- Neostigmine
D- Noradrenaline
The Answer is C- Neostigmine
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Earn 25 ANCC Pharmacology contact hours that are most relevant to NPs, APRNs and FNPs. You will have access to the courses in this package for 1 full yearπ https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is a non-selective beta receptor agonist?
A- Ephedrine
B- Epinephrine
C- Isoproterenol
D- Phenylephrine
The Answer is C- Isoproterenol- It is the only one on the list that is affecting only beta blockers.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at Seasonal offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications is the best recommended for induction of medical abortion?
A- Ergotamine
B- Estrogen
C- Mifepristone
D- Progesterone
The Answer is C- Mifepristone- It called abortion pill which blocks the action of progesterone and stops pregnancy. Ergotamine can cause abortion as a side effect but it is not used therapeutically for medical abortion
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at Seasonal offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at Seasonal offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following drugs is the effective treatment of benzodiazepines toxicity?
A- Atropine
B- Dimercaprol
C- Flumazenil
D- Penicillamine
The Answer is C- Flumazenil
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at Seasonal offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following medications reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?
A- Carbamazepine
B- Ketoconazole
C- Omeprazole
D- Ritonavir
The Answer is A- Carbamazepine
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at Black Friday offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following neurologic drugs can cause diplopia, thickened gums and hirsutism?
A- Carbamazepine
B- Phenobarbital
C- Phenytoin
D- Valproic acid
The Answer is C- Phenytoin
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs increase survival in patients with MI?
A- Atenolol
B- Digoxin
C- Furosemide
D- Verapamil
The Answer is A- Atenolol
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of these medications is contraindicated in a case of cardiogenic shock?
A- Dopamine
B- Intravenous fluids
C- Metoprolol
D- Norepinephrine
The Answer is C- Metoprolol- The treatment of all types of shock should include supportive care, intravenous fluids and other medications depends on the cause of shock. Beta blockers are contraindicated in cardiogenic shock as it worsens hypotension. Dopamine and norepinephrine can be used in case of very low ejection fraction and hypotension.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Overdose of acetaminophen most likely results in hepatic necrosis due to depletion of which one of the following substances?
A- Bilirubin
B- Glutathione
C- Glycogen
D- N-acetylcysteine
The Answer is B- Glutathione- Overdose of acetaminophen leads to accumulation of its metabolite (NAPQI) which depletes glutathione results in accumulation of toxic products in the liver. N-acetylcysteine is the antidot of this toxicity.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- In a peptic ulcer patient, which one of the following medications acts through reversible block of histamine H2-receptors?
A-Misoprostol
B-Omeprazole
C-Ranitidine
D-Sucralfate
The Answer is C-Ranitidine- It is the only one on the list that is histamine H2-blocker. Misoprostol is a PGE1 analog. Omeprazole is H/K ATPase inhibitor and Sucralfate binds to ulcer to provide physical protection.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following medications acts by lowering heart rate and contractility resulting in decreased oxygen consumption?
A-Captopril
B-Digoxin
C-Metoprolol
D-Verapamil
The Answer is C-Metoprolol- This is a selective beta blocker which acts by lowering heart rate and contractility leading to lower oxygen consumption. Other choices act through different mechanisms.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Administration of which one of the following medications can lead to the development of hemolytic anemia?
A- Hydralazine
B- Propranolol
C- Quinidine
D- Verapamil
C- Quinidine- It is the only one on the list can cause hemolytic anemia through the formation of an immune complex and destruction of RBCs. Hydralazine may lead to lupus-like syndrome but not hemolytic anemia.
Try more Pharmacology Quizzes and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following anti-retroviral treatments is a non-competitive reverse transcriptase inhibitor?
A- Didanosine
B- Nevirapine
C- Saquinavir
D- Zidovudine
The Answer is B- Nevirapine- The only one on the list that is NCRTI. A and D are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and C is a protease inhibitor.
Learn & Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited)π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- A 15-year-old boy is diagnosed with βWalking pneumoniaβ. Which of the following is the most effective treatment of this condition?
A- Ampicillin
B- Azithromycin
C- Tetracycline
C- Tetracycline
B- Azithromycin- Walking pneumonia is atypical pneumonia most commonly caused by Mycoplasma and Chlamydia. Macrolides such as azithromycin are the treatment of choice for these organisms.
Practice more MCQs and Get 25 Hour Pharmacology CEUs at offer price (ANCC Accredited) π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of these medications is the most appropriate treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
A- Acetaminophen
B- Dantrolene
C- Ibuprofen
D- Indomethacin
Answer is B- Dantrolene
Practice more MCQs and Get ANCC Accredited CEUs on Pharmacology Here π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs inhibits the dipeptidyl peptidase-IV enzyme?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Sitagliptin
C. Acarbose
D. Metformin
Answer is B: Sitagliptin
Click here to learn more π Pharmacology and get ANCC Accredited CEUs
Q- Which of the following drugs should NOT be initiated in case of acute decompensated heart failure?
A- Digoxin
B- Lisinopril
C- Metoprolol
D- Potassium supplements
The Answer is C- Metoprolol- Beta blockers are successfully used later when heart failure is compensated and stroke volume improves. They can worsen decompensated cases by their inotropic effects.
Click here to learn more Pharmacology CEUs (ANCC Accredited)
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a PPAR-GAMMA stimulator?
A. Glyburide
B. Metformin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Sitagliptin
the Answer is C. Pioglitazone.
Practice more MCQs and Get ANCC Accredited CEUs on Pharmacology Here π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of amoebic liver abscess?
A- Amoxicillin
B- Amikacin
C- Metronidazole
D- Vancomycin
The Answer is C, Metronidazole
Practice more MCQs and Get ANCC Accredited CEUs on Pharmacology Here π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug?
A. Tubocurarine
B. Physostigmine
C. Succinylcholine
D. Gentamicin
Answer is C: Succinylcholine
Practice more MCQs and Get ANCC Accredited CEUs on Pharmacology Here π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
Q- Which one of the following drugs inhibits epoxide reductase?
A- Aspirin
B- Heparin
C- Streptokinase
D- Warfarin
The Answer is D, Warfarin
Practice more MCQs and Get ANCC Accredited CEUs on Pharmacology Here π https://lnkd.in/dpZvTrhK
